Given below is the diagram of a typical anatropous ovule. In which one of the options all the four parts A, B, C, D are correct.
| A | B | C | D |
1. | Funicle | Nucellus | Hilum | Micropyle |
2. | Hilum | Embryo sac | Funicle | Chalaza |
3. | Hilum | Nucellus | Funicle | Micropyle |
4. | Funicle | Embryo sac | Hilum | Chalaza |
Select correct combination of the statements regarding
the taxonomical aids.
A. Herbaria serve as quick referral systems in
taxonomical studies.
B. Keys are generally analytical in nature.
C. Manuals provide the index to the plant species
found in a particular area.
D. Museums have collections of preserved animal
specimens only, for study and reference.
1. A, B, C
2. B, D
3. A, B
4. A, C
In ETS, complex V is
1. ATP synthase
2. NADH dehydrogenase
3. Cytochrome c oxidase
4. Cytochrome bc complex
A person with Down syndrome will show all the given
symptoms except
1. Many loops on finger tips.
2. Flat back of head
3. Big and wrinkled tongue
4. Narrow round face
The Amazon rain forest harbouring probably millions
of species is being cut and cleared for :-
1. Cultivating soya beans
2. Conversion to grasslands for raising beef cattle
3. Timber and firewood
4. Both 1 and 2
Find the odd one out with respect to the disease
caused by fungi.
1. Brown rust of wheat
2. Red rot of sugarcane
3. Late blight of potato
4. Black rot of crucifers
Find out the incorrect statement for the given diagram.
1. Has a sclerenchymatous hypodermis.
2. A large, conspicuous parenchymatous ground
tissue.
3. Peripheral vascular bundles are generally smaller
than the centrally located ones.
4. Vascular bundles surrounded by a
parenchymatous bundle sheath.
Which one of the following cell with its characteristics
is incorrectly matched?
1. Vegetative cell of pollen grain - bigger, abundant
food reserve and a small, round shaped nucleus.
2. Synergids - special cellular thickenings at the
micropylar tip.
3. Cells of the tapetum - dense cytoplasm and
generally have more than one nucleus.
4. Generative cell of pollen grain - small and spindle
shaped with dense cytoplasm and a nucleus.
In most situations, ABA acts as an antagonist to
1. Gibberellic acid
2. Cytokinin
3. Auxin
4. Ethylene
Match the crop with their variety.
A. Cauliflower i. Pusa Shubhra
B. Brassica ii. Pusa Gaurav
C. Okra iii. Pusa Sawani
D. Cowpea iv. Pusa Komal
1. A-iv, B-iii,C-ii, D-i
2. A-ii, B-i,C-iv, D-iii
3. A-i, B-iii,C-ii, D-iv
4. A-i, B-ii,C-iii, D-iv
The option incorrect for water hyacinth is
1. Introduced in India because of its beautiful flowers
and shape of leaves.
2. Drains oxygen from water, which leads to death of
fishes.
3. Found growing wherever there is running water.
4. Grow faster than our ability to remove them.
In eukaryotes, at which of the levels regulation of gene
expression could be exerted?
i. processing level
ii. translational level
iii. transcriptional level
iv. Transport of mRNA from nucleus to cytoplasm
1. iii only
2. ii and iii only
3. ii, iii and iv only
4. All
Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma
of another flower of the same plant.
1. Autogamy
2. Cleistogamy
3. Geitonogamy
4. Xenogamy
Which of the following are the functions of
deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates?
i. Act as substrates
ii. Provide energy for polymerization reaction
iii. Act as enzyme
iv. To separate strands of DNA
1. i, ii, iii
2. ii, iv
3. i, ii
4. i, iii
How many turns of C pathway are required for the removal of one molecule of Triose phosphate?
1. 8
2. 6
3. 4
4. 3
In capping of RNA
1. Unusual nucleotide (methyl guanosine triphosphate) is added to the 5'-end of hnRNA
2. Adenylate residues (200-300) are added at 3'-end
3. Adenylate residues is added to the 5'-end of
hnRNA
4. Unusual nucleotide (methyl guanosine
triphosphate) is added at 3'-end
Which of the following option is not true for penicillin?
1. | Its full potential as an effective antibiotic was established much later by Ernest Chain and Howard Florey. |
2. | This antibiotic was extensively used to treat American soldiers wounded in World War II. |
3. | Produced by the bacteria. |
4. | both 2 and 3 |
Monascus purpureus is a
i. Bacteria
ii. Yeast
iii. Produces cyclosporin A
iv. Produces statins
1. i, iii
2. ii, iii
3. i, iv
4. ii, iv
Which is not the related to wheat?
1. Anacardiaceae
2. Triticum
3. Poales
4. Monocotyledonae
Find out the incorrect characteristic of that group of
fungi to which Albugo belongs.
1. Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic.
2. Asexual reproduction takes place by zygospores
or by aplanospores .
3. Gametes are similar in morphology or dissimilar .
4. Members are found in aquatic habitats and on
decaying wood in moist and damp places or as
obligate parasites on plants
Name the species B involved in the given type of
population interaction.
Species A Species B Population interaction
A. Orchid Commensalism
B. Moth Predation
C. Cuckoo Brood parasitism
Answers of A, B, C are given respectively. Choose
the correct option.
1. Mango, Prickly pear cactus, Crow
2. Bees, Pisaster, Crow
3. Mango, Pisaster, Crow
4. Bees, Prickly pear cactus, Monarch butterfly
The tiger census in our national parks and tiger
reserves is often based on
1. Pugmarks
2. Fecal pellets
3. Fallen teeth
4. Both 1 and 2
Decomposition is controlled by several factors. Find
out the incorrect option with respect to it .
1. Slower if detritus is rich in lignin and chitin.
2. Quicker if detritus is rich in nitrogen .
3. Cool and moist environment favour decomposition
4. Low temperature and anaerobiosis inhibit
decomposition
A stable community
1. Should not show too much variation in productivity
from year to year.
2. It must be either resistant or resilient to occasional
disturbances (natural or man-made).
3. It must also be resistant to invasions by alien
species.
4. All of these
Phosphorus is absorbed by the plants from soil in the
form of
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following store food as floridean starch?
i. Chara ii. Ulothrix
iii. Dictyota iv. Gracilaria
v. Fucus vi. Ectocarpus
vii Porphyra
1. i , iii, v
2. iv, vii
3. iii,iv, vi
4. v, vii
Name the type of aestivation and example when
sepals or petals in a whorl just touch one another at
the margin, without overlapping.
1. Imbricate, China rose
2. Imbricate, Calotropis
3. Valvate , Calotropis
4. Valvate , China rose
Which of the following is wrong for the representation
of the flower in the floral diagram?
1. Fusion is indicated by enclosing the figure within
bracket and adhesion by aline drawn above the
symbols of the floral parts.
2. A floral diagram provides information about the
number of parts of a flower, their arrangement and
the relation they have with one another .
3. The position of the mother axis with respect to the
flower is represented by a dot on the bottom of
the floral diagram.
4. Calyx, corolla, androecium and gynoecium are
drawn in successive whorls, calyx being the
outermost and the gynoecium being in the centre
In which step of glycolysis does water form?
1. Fructose 1,6 –bisphosphate Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
2. 1,3 bisphosphoglyceric acid 3-phosphoglyceric acid
3. 2-phosphoglycerate Phosphoenolpyruvate
4. Phosphoenolpyrespruvate Pyruvic acid
The roots have :-
1. Exarch condition and multicellular root hair
2. Endarch condition and multicellular root hair
3. Exarch condition and unicellular root hair
4. Endarch condition and unicellular root hair
Which cell organelle principally performs the function of packaging materials, to be delivered either to the intra-cellular targets or secreted outside the cell?
1. Rough endoplasmic reticulum
2. Golgi apparatus
3. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
4. Lysosomes
The following are the criteria for essentiality of an
element except
1. In the absence of the element the plants do not
complete their life cycle or set the seeds.
2. The requirement of the element must be specific
and not replaceable by another element.
3. The element must be directly involved in the
metabolism of the plant.
4. The element must not necessary for supporting
normal growth
The Government of India in 1980s has introduced the
concept JFM to :-
1. Work closely with the local communities for
protecting and managing forests.
2. To control the emission of ozone depleting
substances.
3. To take appropriate measures for conservation of
biodiversity and sustainable utilisation of its
benefits.
4. To convert forest to agricultural land so as to feed
the growing human population.
Which is the characteristic feature of metaphase?
1. Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of
chromosomes.
2. Initiation of condensation of chromosomal material.
3. Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles.
4. Disappearance of Golgi complexes, endoplasmic
reticulum, nucleolus, and the nuclear envelope.
Which stage of meiosis - I is characterized by the
appearance of recombination nodules?
1. Diplotene
2. Zygotene
3. Diakinesis
4. Pachytene
Why photorespiration does not take place in C4 plants?
1. | Do not contain RuBisCo |
2. | Have a mechanism that increases the concentration of CO2 at the enzyme site |
3. | Cells do not allow oxygen to accumulate in them |
4. | Cells are impermeable to oxygen |
In which form sugar is moved into the companion cell and then into the living phloem sieve tube cells?
1. Glucose
2. Fructose
3. Sucrose
4. Glycogen
The incorrect statement for facilitated diffusion is:
1. Special proteins help move substances across membranes without the expenditure of energy.
2. Can cause net transport of molecules from a low to a high concentration.
3. It is very specific, it allows cells to select substances for uptake.
4. Transport rate reaches a maximum when all of the protein transporters are being used.
Which taxonomy is easily carried out using computers
and is based on all observable characteristics?
1. Cytotaxonomy
2. Chemotaxonomy
3. Numerical taxonomy
4. All of these
Consider the statements regarding Mendel’s work.
Find out the incorrect option.
1. Mendel selected 14 true-breeding pea plant
varieties, as pairs which were similar except for
one character with contrasting traits.
2. To determine the genotype of a tall plant at F2,
Mendel crossed the tall plant from F2
with a dwarf plant. This he called a test cross.
3. Mendel proposed that something was being stably
passed down, unchanged, from parent to offspring
through the gametes, over successive
generations. He called these things as ‘factors’.
4. Based on his observations on monohybrid crosses
Mendel proposed three general rules to
consolidate his understanding of inheritance in
monohybrid crosses.
Three of the following statements about salient
features of Human Genome are correct and one is
wrong. Which one is wrong?
1. Less than 2 per cent of the genome codes for
proteins.
2. Chromosome 1 has most genes (2968), and the
Y has the fewest (231).
3. The Human Genome contains 3968.7 million
nucleotide bases.
4. The functions are unknown for over 50 per cent of
the discovered genes.
Find out incorrect match of the organisms with their
characteristics
1. Mycoplasma -completely lack cell wall and can
survive without oxygen
2. Dianoflagellates- stiff cellulose plate on outer
surface
3. Deuteromycetes- reproduce only by asexual pores
known as conidia.
4. Euglenoids - Instead of cell wall have fat rich layer
called pellicle
Productivity is expressed in terms of
1. g–1 yr –1
2. (kcal m–2) yr–1
3. Kg–1 yr –1
4. both 1 and 2
Which group of plant is zygomorphic?
1. Pea, Gulmohur, Cassia
2. Bean, Gulmohur, Chilli
3. Cassia, Gulmohur
4. Chilli, Pea, datura
The functions of potassium is
i. Helps to maintain an anion-cation balance in cells
ii. Involved in protein synthesis
iii. Opening and closing of stomata
iv. Activation of enzymes
v. Maintenance of the turgidity of cells
1. i , iii, iv
2. i , ii ,iii, iv , v
3. i ,ii , iii, v
4. ii, iii, iv, v
Which of the following event does not occur after
implantation?
(a) Appearance of germinal layers
(b) Formation of chorionic villi
(c) Secretion of HCG
(d) Formation of trophoblast and inner cell mass
1. a, d
2. c,d,
3. d only
4. c and d
Following is the diagrammatic presentation of a
standard ECG. Each peak in the ECG is identified with
a letter from P to T that corresponds to a specific
electrical activity of the heart. Which of the following
is incorrect match?
1. | QRS complex | Represents the depolarisation of the ventricles. By counting the number of QRS complexes that occur in a given time period, one can determine the heart rate of individual |
2. | T wave | Represents repolarisation of ventricles. The end of T wave marks the end of systole |
3. | Q-wave | Marks the beginning of atrial systole |
4. | P-wave | Represents the electrical excitation of the atria |
Which of the following events occurs in the descending
limb of loop of Henle?
1. 70-80% of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed
by this segment
2. It is permeable to water but almost impermeable
to electrolytes. This concentrates the filtrate as it
moves down
3. Reabsorption of and selective secretion
of hydrogen and potassium ions and NH3 to
maintain the pH
4. It is impermeable to water but allows the transport
of electrolytes actively or passively
Chordae tendinae are the cord like structures that
originate from papillary muscles of the inner border of
the ventricles and are attached to free edges of the
cuspid valves. What would happen if there is
breakdown of chordae tendinae of bicuspid valves?
1. There will be regurgitation of blood into right atrium
during ventricular systole
2. The bicuspid valves will not close
3. The blood may flow back into the left atrium during
ventricular systole
4. There may be regurgitation of blood into both the
atria during ventricular systole
Given below are four statements (A-D) regarding the
function of the kidneys:
A. Kidneys help in the maintenance of ionic and acid
base balance of body fluids
B. They help in regulation of blood pH
C. They help in erythropoiesis, i.e. production of
RBCs
D. They help in regulation of blood pressure and the
blood volume
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. only A
2. A & B only
3. A, B & C only
4. A, B, C & D
Which of the following is the incorrectly matched set of organisms and the type of excretory waste?
Organisms | Excretory waste | |
1. | Bony fishes, aquatic amphibians, aquatic insects | Ammonia |
2. | Terrestrial amphibians, and cartilaginous fishes | Urea |
3. | Land snails | Urea |
4. | Reptiles, birds, and insects | Uric acid |
Which of the following conditions will not activate the
JG cells to release renin so that glomerular blood flow
and GFR come back to normal?
1. Decrease in blood volume
2. Fall in Na+ ion concentration in the blood plasma
3. Rise in GFR
4. Fall in blood pressure
The tubular epithelial cells in different segments of
nephrons perform reabsorption either by active or
passive transport. Which of the following substances
in the filtrate are reabsorbed by passive transport?
1. Glucose and Na+
2. Glucose and amino acids
3. Water and nitrogenous wastes
4. Amino acids and Na+
Which of the following is not a matching pair?
1. |
Systemic heart |
- |
Left atrium and left ventricle in the higher vertebrates |
2. |
Dupp |
- |
Opening of semilunar valves at the begining of ventricular diastole |
3. |
Pulse pressure |
- |
Difference between systolic and diastolic blood pressure |
4. |
Lubb |
- |
Closure of AV valves at the begining of ventricular systole |
Following is the figure of actin (thin) filaments, Identify
A, B and C
1. A-Tropomyosin, B-Troponin, C-F-actin
2. A-Troponin, B-Myosin, C-Tropomyosin
3. A-Troponin, B-Tropokyosin, C-Myosin
4. A-Troponin, B-Tropomyosin, C-F-actin
A motor unit is best described as-
1. All the nerve fibres and muscle fibres in a single
muscle bundle
2. One muscle fibre and its single nerve fibre
3. A single motor neuron and all the muscle fibres
that it innervates
4. It is the neuron which carries the message from
muscle to CNS
Lymph is
1. Blood without corpuscles and fibrin proteins
2. Blood without RBCs, platelets, some proteins and
some salts, it can clot
3. Blood without RBCs and WBCs
4. Plasma without proteins, so it cannot clot
In __i__, the collagen fibres are present in rows
between parallel bundles of fibres. It is an example of
dense __ii__ connective tissue
1. i-cartilage; ii-regular
2. i-cartilage; ii-irregular
3. i-tendon; ii-irregular
4. i-tendon; ii-regular
In cockroach mouth part consists of a labrum, a pair
of mandibles a pair of maxillae and a labium. Labrum
and labium act as—
1. Upper and lower jaws respectively
2. Lower and upper jaws respectively
3. Upper jaw and lips respectively
4. Upper and lower lips respectively
Mark the incorrect statement
A. All the cells of inner cell mass have the feature of
stem cells
B. Powerful uterine contraction is called foetal
ejection reflex
C. Foetal pituitary gland secrete oxytocin for uterine
contraction
D. Soon after the infant is delivered the placenta is
also expelled out
1. A, B, C, D
2. A, C only
3. A, B, C
4. B, C only
The amount of CO2 that can diffuse through the diffusion membrane per unit difference in partial pressure is much higher as compared to that of O2. This is because:
1. | Solubility coefficient of CO2 is higher |
2. | Solubility coefficient of CO2 is lesser |
3. | Amount of gases in blood is independent of partial pressures of the gases in the atmosphere |
4. | Arterial blood contains more O2 than CO2 |
Transverse section of gut shows four layers of the
wall i.e. serosa, muscularis, submucosa and mucosa.
Which of the following statements is not correct
regarding its arrangement and modifications?
1. Serosa is the outermost layer which is made of
thin mesothelium
2. Oblique muscle layer is present in stomach
3. All the four layers show modifications in different
parts of alimentary canal
4. Villi and rugae are modified mucosal and
submucosal layers respectively
The term feedback refers to
1. The effect of substrate on the rate of enzymatic
reaction
2. The effect of end product on the rate of enzymatic
reaction
3. The effect of enzyme concentration on the rate of
reaction
4. The effect of external inhibitor on the rate of
enzymatic reaction
All the following statements about cellulose are
correct, except
1. Cellulose is homopolymer
2. it is the most abundant organic molecule in the
biosphere
3. It is branched polymer of -glucose
4. It has 1-4 glycosidic bonds
Common bile duct includes:
1. Right and left hepatic ducts only
2. Common hepatic duct and cystic duct
3. Cystic duct and pancreatic duct
4. Common hepatic duct and pancreatic duct
Which of the following phyla is not correctly matched
to its general characters?
1. |
Porifera |
- |
Primitive multicellular animals which have intracellular digestion, internal fertilization and indirect development |
2. |
Ctenophora |
- |
Exclusively marine, radially symmetrical, diploblastic have comb plates and colloblast cells |
3. |
Echinodermata |
- |
Pentamerous radial symmetry and mostly internal fertilization |
4. |
Mollusca |
- |
Basically oviparous and development is indirect through a trochophore or veliger larva |
From the given statements which of the following
statement(s) is/are incorrect for Annelida?
a. Pseudometameric segmentation present
b. Coelomic fluid acts as a hydrostatic skeleton
c. They possess longitudinal and circular muscles
which help in locomotion
d. Neural system consists of paired ganglia connected
by lateral nerves to a single ventral nerve chord
1. a & b only
2. b & c only
3. a only
4. a & d only
Choose the correct option in which all animals have
external fertilization?
1. Spongilla, Euspongia, Fasciola
2. Balanoglossus, Pheretima, Ctenoplana
3. Physalia, Metridium, Taenia
4. Fasciola, Ascaris and Wuchereria
Restriction endonuclease generated DNA fragments
separated by gel electrophoresis and blot transferred
onto a membrane filter are probed with radioactive
DNA fragment. This procedure is called
1. Gene cloning
2. The southern blotting technique
3. Northern blotting
4. Western blotting
Which of the following is not a direct method of gene
transfer?
1. Electroporation
2. Chemical mediated gene transfer
3. Biolistic gene gun method
4. Ti plasmid of Agrobacterium
The gene of interest was cloned at BamHI site of the
given vector. Which of the following is most likely to
be one of the observations with respect to successful
transformants?
1. Resistance for both ampicillin and tetracycline
remains intact
2. The transformants remain resistant to ampicillin
but are sensitive to tetracycline
3. Transformants are sensitive to both ampicillin and
tetracycline
4. Transformants are resistant to tetracycline while
sensitive to ampicillin
The restriction fragments of DNA are __A__ charged
and move through agarose gel according to their
__B__ and reach the C end of the gel. The correct
option that satisfied A, B and C is
|
A |
B |
C |
1. |
Positively |
charge |
anode |
2. |
Negatively |
size |
anode |
3. |
Negatively |
size |
cathode |
4. |
Positively |
size |
cathode |
A person received a blood transfusion and he suspects
that the donor’s blood was not properly tested. The
recipient’s blood does not have any anti HIV antibodies
as yet. Which of the following tests would be of
diagnostic value?
1. ELISA
2. Southern blot
3. PCR
4. Northern blot
Which of the following is correct for the source of LSD,
morphine and charas respectively?
1. Claviceps, Papaver somniferum, Cannabis
2. Claviceps, Cannabis, Papaver somniferum
3. Claviceps, Cannabis, Rauwolfia
4. Claviceps, Fusarium, Cannabis
Continued inbreeding, especially close inbreeding
usually reduce fertility and even productivity called
inbreeding depression. This can be overcome by
1. Cross breeding
2. Outcross
3. Interspecific hybridization
4. Continued inbreeding
In case of MOET, at which stage, fertilized eggs are
recovered non-surgically from genetic mother and
transfeerred to surrogate mother?
1. Single cell zygote
2. After first trimester
3. 8-32 cells stage
4. Gastrula stage
The recognition sequence of Hind II is–––
1. 5'G G A T C C3'
3'C C T A G G5'
2. 5'G A A T T C3'
3'C T T A A G5'
3. 5'G A A T T C3'
3'C T T A A G5'
4. 5'G T C G A C3'
3'C A G C T G5'
Choose the correct preferential order with respect to transplant
donar
1. Identical twins>sibling>parent>unrelated donor
2. Sibling>identical twins>parent>unrelated donor
3. Parent>sibling>identical twins>unrelated donor
4. Identical twins>parent>sibling>unrelated donor
Black water fever is caused by
1. Plasmodium vivax
2. Plasmodium falciparum
3. Plasmodium malariae
4. Phlebotomus argentipes
Mark the correct match
1. Dick test - Diphtheria
2. Widal test - Tuberculosis
3. Wayson stain test - Plague
4. Torniquet test - Typhoid
In which of the following autoimmune disorder, the
antibodies attack upon myeline sheath of nerve cells?
1. Myasthenia gravis
2. Multiple sclerosis
3. Rheumatoid arthritis
4. Hashimoto disease
Mark the incorrect statement with respect to AIDS
1. There is reduction in number of T helper cells,
which stimulates antibody production by B cells
2. Caused by HIV, earlier identified and named by
Americans as Human cell leukemia virus III
3. HIV enters body cells by receptor mediated
endocytosis
4. The genome of HIV consists of two non identical
molecules of single stranded RNA and said to be
diploid
The rate of appearance of new forms is linked with:
1. Mutation
2. Life span
3. Use and disuse
4. Genetic drift
Which one of the following glands is correctly matched with the accompanying description?
1. Thyroid Hyperactivity in children causes cretinism
2. Thymus Starts undergoing atrophy after puberty
3. Parathyroid Secretes parathormone which promotes the movement of calcium ions from blood to bones during calcification
4. Pancreas Alpha cells of islet of Langerhans secrete a hormone that stimulates glycogenesis
Evolution by __‘a’__ in a true sense would have started
when cellular forms of life with differences in metabolic
capability originated on earth. Here ‘a’ is
1. Mutation
2. Natural selection
3. Genetic drift
4. Special creation
A petient of diabetes mellitus excretes glucose in urine
even when he is kept on a carbohydrate free diet. It is
because
1. Fats are catabolised to form glucose
2. Amino acids are synthesized in liver
3. Amino acids are discharged in blood stream from
liver
4. Glycogen from muscles are released in the blood
stream
Which set includes hormones that are involved in carbohydrate metabolism?
1. Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine, calcitonin
2. Insulin, glucagon, epinephrine, cortisol
3. Insulin, glucagon, cortisol, melatonin
4. Insulin, glucagon, norepinephrine, melatonin
Choose the correct statement regarding the ZIFT
Procedure
1. Ova is collected from the female donor and
transferred to the Fallopian tube to facilitate zygote
formation
2. Zygote is collected from a female donor and
transferred to Fallopian tube
3. Zygote is collected from a female donor and
transferred to the uterus
4. Ova is collected from a female donor and
transferred to the uterus
Which of the following is not a matching pair of major
features of embryonic development at various month
of pregnancy?
1. |
One month |
- |
The embryo heart is formed |
2. |
End of second month |
- |
Foetus develops limbs and digits |
3. |
End of first trimester |
- |
The body is covered with fine hairs |
4. |
During fifth month |
- |
The first movement of the foetus and appearance of hairs on head |
One of the following is haploid cell
1. Primordial germ cell
2. Oogonium
3. Primary oocyte
4. Secondary oocyte
The products of combustion of an aliphatic thiol (RSH) at 298K are:-
(1) CO2(l), H2O(g)andSO2(g)
(2) CO2(g), H2O(g)andSO2(g)
(3) CO2(l), H2O(l)andSO2(g)
(4) CO2(g), H2O(l)andSO2(l)
The major product(s) of the following reaction is (are)
(1) P
(2) Q
(3) R
(4) S
The increasing order of the reactivity of the following compounds towards electrophilic aromatic substitution reaction is:
1. | III < I < II | 2. | III < II < I |
3. | II < I < III | 4. | II < III < I |
Which of the following molecules, in pure form, is (are) unstable at room temperature?
A.
B.
C.
D.
1. A,B,C
2.B,C
3.B,D
4.A,D
Mark the reaction among the following that does not give benzoic acid as the major product:
1. | |
2. | |
3. | |
4. |
The artificial sweetener stable at cooking temperature that does not provide calories is-
1. Saccharin
2. Aspartame
3. Sucralose
4. Alitame
During the decomposition of H2O2 to give oxygen, 48 g O2 formed per minute at a certain point of time. The rate of formation of water at this point is
(1) 0.75 mol min-1
(2) 1.5 mol min-1
(3) 2.25 mol min-1
(4) 3.0 mol min-1
A conductivity cell has a cell constant of 0.5 cm-1. This cell when filled with 0.01 M NaCl solution has a resistance of 384 ohms at 25C. Calculate the equivalent conductance of the given solution.
(1) 130.2
(2) 137.4
(3) 154.6
(4) 169.2
Arsenic drugs are mainly used in the treatment of
(1) Jaundice
(2) Typhoid
(3) Syphilis
(4) Cholera
Glucose
1. Heptanoic acid
2. 2-Iodohexane
3. Heptane
4. Heptanol
Which will undergo reaction with ammonical
1.
2.
3.
4.
Among the following hormones, which one contains iodine?
1. Insulin
2. Testosterone
3. Adrenaline
4. Thyroxine
Among the following molecules,
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
Those having the same number of lone pairs on Xe are
1. (i) and (ii) only
2. (i) and (iii) only
3. (ii) and (iii) only
4. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
An aqueous solution of CoCl2 on addition of excess of concentrated HCl turns blue due to formation of
(1) [Co(H2O)4Cl2]
(2) [Co(H2O)2Cl2]2-
(3) [CoCl4]2-
(4) [Co(H2O)2Cl2]
In which of the following pairs both the complexes show optical isomerism?
(1) cis-[Cr(C2O4)2Cl2]3-.cis-[Co(NH3)4Cl2]
(2)[Co(en)3]Cl3.cis-[Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
(3) [PtCl(dien)]Cl.[NiCl2Br2]2-
(4) [Co(NO3)4(NH3)3.cis-Pt(en)2Cl2]
The diamagnetic species is
(1)
(2) [NiCl4]2-
(3) [CoCl4]2-
(4) [CoF6]2
In the given balanced chemical reaction,
\(\mathrm{IO}_3^{-}+\mathrm{aI}^{-}+\mathrm{bH}^{+} \rightarrow \mathrm{cH}_2 \mathrm{O}+\mathrm{dI}_2\)
The values of a, b, c, and d respectively are-
1. 5, 6, 3, 3
2. 5, 3, 6, 3
3. 3, 5, 3, 6
4. 5, 6, 5, 5
Among the following pairs of ions, the lower oxidation state in aqueous solution is more stable than the other in
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
The number of P-O-P bridges in the structure of phosphorus pentoxide and phosphorus trioxide are respectively
(1) 6, 6
(2) 5, 5
(3) 5, 6
(4) 5, 7
In diborane, the two H-B-H angles are nearly-
1.
2.
3.
4.
A compound that gives propyne on hydrolysis is -
1.
2.
3.
4.
The pair of amphoteric hydroxides is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following is a carbonate ore?
(1) Pyrolusite
(2) malachite
(3) diaspore
(4) cassitente
emits 8 -particles and 6 -particles. The neutron proton ratio in the product nucleus is
(1) 60/41
(2) 61/40
(3) 62/41
(4) 61/42
F2 formed by reacting K2MnF6 with
(1) MnF4
(2) SbF5
(3) MnF3
(4) KSbF6
Isoelectronic pair, among the following, is :
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following chemicals are used to manufacture methyl isocyanate that caused "Bhopal Tragedy"
(i) methylamine
(ii) phosgene
(iii) phosphine
(iv) dimethylamine
(1) (ii) and (iv)
(2) (i) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (ii)
-particles can be detected using
(1) gold foil
(2) barium sulphate
(3) thin aluminium sheet
(4) zinc sulphide screen
Which of the following molecules is most suitable to disperse benzene in water?
The chemical reaction.
taking place in a galvanic cell is represented by the rotation
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
If Z is the number of atoms in the unit cell that represents the closest packing sequence ...A B C A B C.... the number of tetrahedral voids in the unit cell is equal to
(1) Z
(2) Z/4
(3) Z/2
(4) 2Z
(298K) of methanol is given by the chemical equation -
1. C(diamond)++2H2CH3OH
2. CH4+CH3OH
3. CO+2H2CH3OH
4. C(graphite)++2H2CH3OH
An endothermic reaction with high activation energy for the forward reaction is given by the diagram
1.
2.
3.
4.
When 10 ml of 0.1 M acetic acid (pKa=5.0) is titrated against 10 ml of 0.1 M
ammonia solution (pKb=5.0),
the pH at equivalence point will be:
1. | 9.0 | 2. | 6.0 |
3. | 5.0 | 4. | 7.0 |
The most probable radius (in pm) for finding the electron in He+ is :
1. 26.5
2. 105.8
3. 0.0
4. 52.9
For reaction aAxP, when [A]=2.2 mM. The was found to be 2.4 mM s-1. On reducing concentration of A to half, the rate changes to 0.6 mM s-1. The order of reaction with respect to A is
(1) 1.5
(2) 2.5
(3) 3.0
(4) 2.0
For the reaction 2NOCl(g)⇔2NO(g)+Cl2(g), KC at 427C is \(3\times 10^{-6} \ mol\ L^{-1}\). The value of Kp will be :
1.
2.
3.
4.
Among the following the strongest nucleophile is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
3-Phenylpropene on reaction with HBr gives (as a major product)-
1.
2.
3.
4.
The IUPAC name of carproic acid is :
(1) pentanoic acid
(2) hexanoic acid
(3) heptanoic acid
(4) octanoic acid
Among the following which one does not act as an intermediate in hofmann rearrangement?
(1) RNC
(2) RNCO
(3) RCON
(4) RCONHBr
The cation of alkali metals are found as M(H2O)+n in H2O.
The value of 'n' is maximum for -
1. Na+
2. K+
3. Rb+
4. Li+
Fire extinguisher contains NaHCO3 and the compound (X). The compound (X) may be
(1) CH3COOH
(2) NaOH
(3) C6H5OH
(4) Any of these
A substance that gives a brick red flame and breaks down
on heating to give oxygen and a brown gas is:
1. Calcium carbonate
2. Magnesium carbonate
3. Calcium nitrate
4. None of the above
The correct order of hydration energy of following metal ions is/are
1. Be2+>Mg2+
2. Be2+>Li+
3. Na+<Li+
4. All of these
A wire fixed at the upper end is stretched by length l by a force F. The work done in stretching is-
(1)
(2) Fl
(3) 2Fl
(4)
A solid sphere with a velocity (of the centre of mass) v and angular velocity is gently placed on a rough horizontal surface. The frictional force on the sphere:
1. must be forward (in direction of v)
2. must be backward (opposite to v)
3. cannot be zero
4. None of these
Error in the measurement of radius of sphere is 2%. Then error in the calculation of volume will be
(1) 4%
(2) 5%
(3) 3%
(4) 6%
A stone is thrown with a speed of 20 m/s at an angle of 60 with the ground. Speed of stone when it makes an angle of 30 with the horizontal is
1. 10 m/s
2. 10 m/s
3. m/s
4. None of these
A swimmer wishes to cross a 800 m wide river flowing at 6 km/hr. His speed with respect to water is 4 km/hr. He crosses the river in shortest possible time. He is drifted downstream on reaching the other bank by a distance of
1. 800 m
2. 1200 m
3. 400 m
4. 2000 m
A stone tied to the end of a string 80 cm long is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant speed. If the stone makes 14 revolution in 25 s, what is the magnitude of acceleration of the stone?
(1) 9.91 m/s2
(2) 18.82 m/s2
(3) 31 m/s2
(4) None
A hockey player is moving northward and suddenly turns westward with the same speed to avoid an opponent. The force that acts on the player is
(1) frictional force along westward
(2) muscle force along southward
(3) frictional force along south-west
(4) muscle force along west
Two bodies of masses 10 kg and 20 kg, respectively, kept on a smooth, horizontal surface are tied to the ends of a light string. A horizontal force F=600 N is applied to body of mass 10 kg. What is the tension in the string?
(1) 200 N
(2) 100 N
(3) 400 N
(4) 600 N
A bullet losses 19% of its kinetic energy when passing through an obstacle. The percentage change in its speed is-
(1) Reduced by 10%
(2) Reduced by 19%
(3) Reduced by 9.5%
(4) Reduced by 11%
A body of mass 20 kg is moving with a velocity of 2v and another body of mass 10 kg is moving with velocity v along same direction. The velocity of their centre of mass is
(1)
(2)
(3) v
(4) zero
A ring and a disc with the same moment of inertia roll along a plane surface at the same speed. If be the rotational kinetic energy of the ring and be that of the disc, then:
1. >
2. <
3. =
4. The relation depends upon the radii of the ring and disc
One solid sphere A and another hollow sphere B are of same mass and same outer radii. Their moment of inertia about diameters are respectively , then (where are their densities)-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A truck of mass \(30,000~\text{kg}\) moves up an inclined plane of slope \(1\) in \(100\) \(\left(\tan\theta = \frac{1}{100}\right)\) at a speed of \(30~\text{km/h}\). The power of the truck is: (given \(g=10~\text{ms}^{-2}\)):
1. | \(25~\text{kW}\) | 2. | \(10~\text{kW}\) |
3. | \(5~\text{kW}\) | 4. | \(2.5~\text{kW}\) |
A wall consists of alternating blocks with length 'd' and coefficient of thermal conductivity . The cross sectional area of the blocks are the same. The equivalent coefficient of thermal conductivity of the wall between left and right is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Which of the following quantities is the same for all ideal gases at the same temperature?
(1) the kinetic energy of 1 mole
(2) the kinetic energy of 1 g
(3) the number of molecules in 1 mole
(4) the number of molecules in 1 g
An ideal gas is taken through the process as shown in the figure. Then:
1. | In the process AB, the work done by the system is positive. |
2. | In process AB, heat is rejected out of the system. |
3. | In the process AB, internal energy increases. |
4. | In the process AB, internal energy decreases, and in the process BC, internal energy increases. |
A black body calorimeter filled with hot water cools from 60 to 50 in 4 min and 40 to 30 in 8 min. The approximate temperature of surrounding is
(1) 10
(2) 15
(3) 20
(4) 25
The equation is expression for
(1) Stationary wave of single frequency along x-axis.
(2) A simple harmonic motion.
(3) A progressive wave of single frequency along x-axis
(4) The resultant of two SHMs of slightly different frequencies
Two cars are moving towards each other with same speed. If frequency of horn blown by driver of one car and frequency appeared to another driver differ by 4% from the frequency of horn, then find out the speed of cars ?(speed of sound = 300 m/s)
(1) 12 m/s
(2) 6.6 m/s
(3) 4.2 m/s
(4) 5.9 m/s
A particle is executing SHM with an amplitude of 4 cm. At the mean position, velocity of the particle is 10 cm/s. The distance of the particle from the mean position when its speed becomes 5 cm/s is
1. cm
2. cm
3. 2 cm
4. 2 cm
A body is suspended from a spring balance kept in a satellite. The reading of the balance is when the satellite goes in an orbit of radius R and is when it goes in an orbit of radius 2R. Then-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Two identical artificial satellites A and B are at a distance above the Earth's surface. If the radius of Earth is R, then the ratio of their speeds will be
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A charged particle of charge q and mass m is released from rest in an uniform electric field E. Neglecting the effect of gravity, the kinetic energy of the charged particle after time 't' seconds is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
When the seperation between two charges is increased, the electric potential energy of the charges
(1) increases
(2) decreases
(3) remains the same
(4) may increase or decrease
A cube of side b has a charge q at each of its vertices. The electric potential at the centre of the cube is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) zero
The equivalent capacity of the combination shown in figure is -
(1) C
(2) 2C
(3) 3/2 C
(4) C/2
The resistance of wire is 20 . The wire is stretched to three times its length. Then the resistance will now be-
(1) 6.67
(2) 60
(3) 120
(4) 180
In the figure shown, battery 1 has emf = 6 V and internal resistance = 1 . Battery 2 has emf = 2V and internal resistance = 3 . The wires have negligible resistance. What is the potential difference across the terminals of battery 2?
(1) 4 V
(2) 1.5 V
(3) 5 V
(4) 0.5 V
In the figure shown, for given values of , the balance point for Jockey is at 40 cm from A. When is shunted by a resistance of 10 , balance shifts to 50 cm. are (AB=1 m)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
If the ratio of magnetic fields at two point in a definite direction due to a long current carrying wire is , then the ratio of the distances of these points from the wire will be:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
The magnetic moment of a circular orbit of radius ‛\(r\)‛ carrying a charge '\(q\)' and rotating with velocity \(v\) is given by:
1. \(\frac{qvr}{2\pi}\)
2. \(\frac{qvr}{2}\)
3. \(qv\pi r\)
4. \(qv\pi r^2\)
A field of 5 Tesla acts at right angles to a coil of 50 turns of area . The coil is removed from the field in 0.1 second. Then the induced emf in the coil is
(1) 0.8 kV
(2) 80 kV
(3) 8 V
(4) 8 kV
The self inductance and resistance of a coil are 5 H and 20 respectively. On applying an emf of 100 V on it, the magnetic potential energy stored in the coil will be
(1) 62.5 J
(2) 62.5 erg
(3)
(4) zero
Power factor of an L-R series circuit is 0.6 and that of a C-R series circuit is 0.5. If the element (L, C and R) of the two circuits are joined in series the power factor of this circuit is found to be 1. The ratio of the resistance in the L-R circuit to the resistance in the C-R circuit is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A ray of light is incident normally on one face of an equilateral prism of refractive index 1.5. The angle of deviation is
(1) 30
(2) 45
(3) 60
(4) 75
In the figure shown, the image of a real object is formed at point I. AB is the principal axis of the mirror. The mirror must be:
(1) concave & placed towards right of I
(2) concave & placed towards left of I
(3) convex and placed towards right of I
(4) convex & placed towards left of I
If the Young's double slit experiment is performed with white light, then which of the following is not true?
1. the central maximum will be white
2. there will not be a completely dark fringe
3. the fringe next to the central will be red
4. the fringe next to the central will be violet
The angular momentum of an electron in the hydrogen atom is . Here h is Planck's constant. The kinetic energy of this electron is:
(1) 4.53 eV
(2) 1.51 eV
(3) 3.4 eV
(4) 6.8 eV
The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from a surface when photons of energy 6 eV fall on it is 4 eV. The stopping potential in Volts is:
(1) 2
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 10
W of 5000 light is directed on a photoelectric cell. If the current in the cell is 0.16 mA, the percentage of incident photons which produce photoelectrons, is
(1) 0.4%
(2) 0.04%
(3) 4%
(4) 40%
The electron in a hydrogen atom makes transition from M shell to L. The ratio of magnitudes of initial to final centripetal acceleration of the electron is
(1) 9 : 4
(2) 81 : 16
(3) 4 : 9
(4) 16 : 81
A certain radioactive nuclide of mass number disintegrates, with the emission of an electron and radiation only, to give second nuclide of mass number . Which one of the following equation correctly relates
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A radioactive substance is dissolved in a liquid and the solution is heated. The activity of the solution
(1) is smaller than that of element
(2) is greater than that of element
(3) is equal to that of element
(4) will be smaller or greater depending upon whether the solution is weak or concentrated
A potential barrier of 0.50 V exists across a p-n junction. If the depletion region is m wide, the intensity of the electric field in this region is:
1. | \(1.0 \times 10^6 \mathrm{~V} / \mathrm{m}\) | 2. | \(1.0 \times 10^5 \mathrm{~V} / \mathrm{m}\) |
3. | \(2.0 \times 10^5 \mathrm{~V} / \mathrm{m}\) | 4. | \(2.0 \times 10^6 \mathrm{~V} / \mathrm{m}\) |
Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates?
1. OR
2. NAND
3. AND
4. NOR