Consider the following diagram showing the working of the lac operon in E.coli in the presence of inducer and choose the correct statement from the ones given below :
1. | A is the inducer and can be either lactose or cAMP |
2. | B is the enzyme that will metabolize glucose, the preferred energy source |
3. | Some amount of C will be present in the cell, even if lactose is absent |
4. | The absence of D will stop the lactose from entering the cell |
Study the diagram given below and choose the correct information that can be deduced :
1. The core RNA polymerase is capable of catalyzing elongation only
2. Sigma factor and Rho factor are needed for termination of transcription
3. DNA helicase opens the strand of the DNA
4. Both strands of DNA are transcribed by the same RNA polymerase
Consider the transcription unit given in the following diagram and choose the correct statements :
I. The promoter is situated upstream and 5' to the structural gene
II. It is the presence of the structural gene that defines the template strand
III. The coding strand does not code for anything and is displaced during transcription
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I,II and III
The disease inheritance pattern exemplified in the given pedigree analysis can be:
1. | Hemophilia | 2. | Red-green colour blindness |
3. | Phenyl ketonuria | 4. | Polydactyly |
Consider the following statements:
I. People affected by phenylketonuria are unable to convert tyrosine to phenylalanine.
II. Alzheimer's disease results from accumulation of amyloid protein plaques in the brain.
III. Klinefelter's and Turner's syndromes are the result of non disjunction of the sex chromosomes in either of sexes.
Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III
Consider the following statements:
I. If we put them through test cross, all homozygous dominant combinations will breed true but heterozygous genotypes will follow the segregation.
II. Two gene interactions such as epistasis do not follow the Menedelian principle of segregation.
III. In any diploid individual, only two alleles can be found, so multiple alleles can be detected only in a population.
Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III
Consider the following statements:
I. Y chromosome determines maleness in humans and other mammals.
II. Sex-linked recessive characters are more commoniy seen in the males of the species.
III. In birds and butterflies, males are XX and females are XY.
Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III
Match each item in Column I [Protist] with one in Column II [Characteristic] and select the correct option:
Protist | Characteristic |
A. Chrysophytes | P. Plasmodium |
B. Dinoflagellates | Q. Chief producers in the ocean |
C. Euglenoids | R. Stiff cellulose plates in cell wall on outer surface |
D. Slime moulds | S. Two flagella, one long and one short |
A | B | C | D | |
1. | R | Q | S | P |
2. | Q | S | P | R |
3. | Q | R | S | P |
4. | R | S | Q | P |
Identify the correctly matched row:
Class |
Mycelium |
Spores |
|
I. |
Phycomycetes |
Aseptate and coenocytic |
Exogenous on sporangium |
II. |
Ascomycetes |
Branched and septate |
Endogenously in asci |
III. |
Basidiomycetes |
Branched and septate |
Exogenously on basidium |
1. Only I
2. Only II
3. Only III
4. Both II and III
The feature lacking in bony fishes would be:
1. | Operculum | 2. | Swim bladder |
3. | Ammonotelism | 4. | Placoid scales |
China rose does not have:
1. Alternate phyllotaxy
2. Superior ovary
3. Imbricate aestivation
4. Monoadelphous stamen
Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct answer from the codes given:
Tissue | Location | ||
A | Cuboidal brush bordered epithelium | P | Proximal convoluted tubule of the nephron |
B | Ciliated columnar epithelium | Q | Fallopian tubes |
C | Dense regular connective tissue | R | Tendon |
D | Dense irregular connective tissue | S | Skin |
Codes:
A | B | C | D | |
1. | P | Q | R | S |
2. | Q | P | S | R |
3. | Q | P | R | S |
4. | P | Q | S | R |
Which of the following organelles is not correctly matched with its feature?
Organelle | Feature | |
1. | Smooth endoplasmic reticulum | Synthesis of steroidal hormones in animals |
2. | Golgi apparatus | Formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids |
3. | Lysosomes | Rich in alkaline hydrolases |
4. | Elaioplasts | Store oils and fats |
Which of the following stages of Meiosis I of Prophase I is not correctly matched with events occurring during that stage?
|
Stage |
Event |
1. |
Zygotene |
Pairing between homologous chromosomes |
2. |
Pachytene |
Crossing over between sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes |
3. |
Diplotene |
Tendency of recombined homologues to separate |
4. |
Diakinesis |
Terminalization of chiasmata |
The glands in the gastric mucosa in the human alimentary canal secrete all of the following except:
1. Protease
2. Cyanocobalamin
3. Lipase
4. Mucus
The maximum amount of air that a person can breathe out after a forced inspiration, under normal physiological conditions, would be about:
1. | 1600 ml | 2. | 2300 ml |
3. | 4500 ml | 4. | 5600 ml |
A person can receive blood only from a donor of his/her blood group if the blood group of this person is:
1. O
2. AB
3. A or B
4. A, B, AB or O
Identify the correctly matched pair:
1. |
Asexual reproductive structure in Chlamydomonas |
Zygospores |
2. |
Vegetative propagule in Agave |
Offset |
3. |
Chromosome number in meiocyte of Ophioglossum |
630 |
4. |
Marchantia |
Dioecious plant |
The layers in the walls of the microsporangium that helps in the dehiscence of anther to release the pollen include:
I. | Epidermis |
II. | Endothecium |
III. | Middle layers |
IV. | Tapetum |
1. | I and II only | 2. | I, II, and III only |
3. | II and III only | 4. | I, II, III, and IV |
Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct answer from the codes given:
A |
Codominance |
P |
Progeny resembles both parents |
B |
Incomplete dominance |
Q |
Progeny does not resemble either of the parents |
C |
Sex determination in Drosophila |
R |
Haplo-diploidy |
D |
Sex determination in Honey bee |
S |
Genic balance |
Codes :
A | B | C | D | |
1. | P | Q | R | S |
2. | P | Q | S | R |
3. | Q | P | R | S |
4. | Q | P | S | R |
Regarding Mendelian disorders :
1. | Color blindness is more common in the females of the species. |
2. | Sickle cell anemia occurs due to the substitution of valine by glutamic acid in the globin chain of haemoglobin. |
3. | Individuals affected by phenylketonuria lack an enzyme that converts tyrosine to phenylalanine. |
4. | Thalassemia is inherited as an autosomal recessive trait. |
Given below in Column I are the criteria for a molecule that can act as a genetic material and the corresponding inferences drawn are given in Column II. Identify the criteria that is not correctly matched to the inference drawn:
|
Criteria |
Inference drawn |
1. |
It should be able to replicate |
Protein cannot be the genetic material |
2. |
It should be stable structurally and chemically |
DNA is a better genetic material than RNA |
3. |
It should provide the scope for slow changes |
RNA evolves faster than DNA |
4. |
It should be able to express in the form of Mendelian characters |
The protein synthesizing machinery has evolved around DNA |
Normally the process of DNA fingerprinting does not involve:
1. | Southern blot | 2. | Elution |
3. | Radiolabelled VNTR probes | 4. | Autoradiography |
Identify the correct statement amongst the following:
1. | Monocots evolved later than dicots. |
2. | Mammals evolved from extinct reptiles called thecodonts. |
3. | Dryopithecus was more man-like while Ramapithecus was more ape-like. |
4. | Homo erectus had a cranial capacity of about 800 cc and probably ate meat. |
Identify the biome that is not correctly matched with its mean annual temperature and mean annual precipitation:
|
Biome |
Mean annual temperature [0C] |
Mean annual precipitation [cm] |
1. |
Desert |
0 – 25 |
25 – 100 |
2. |
Temperate Forest |
10 – 22 |
50 – 220 |
3. |
Tropical forest |
20 – 25 |
150 – 425 |
4. |
Coniferous forest |
0 – 15 |
50 – 250 |
The relationship between cattle egret and grazing cattle can be best described as:
1. | Mutualism | 2. | Commensalism |
3. | Parasitism | 4. | Competition |
Which of the following will lead to decreased rate of decomposition of detritus?
1. | Anaerobiosis | 2. | High temperature |
3. | Moist environment | 4. | High nitrogen content in detritus |
Match the legislation in Column I with the corresponding year in Column II and select the correct answer from the codes given:
|
Legislation |
|
Year |
A |
Air [Prevention and Control of Pollution] Act |
P |
1974 |
B |
Environment [Protection] Act |
Q |
1981 |
C |
Water [Prevention and Control of Pollution] Act |
R |
1986 |
D |
National Forest Policy |
S |
1988 |
Codes
Options: | (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) |
1. | R | Q | S | P |
2. | Q | R | P | S |
3. | Q | R | S | P |
4. | R | Q | P | - S |
Ozone hole develops over Antarctica each year between:
1. Early January and late April
2. Early March and late July
3. Late August and early October
4. Late September and early December
The steps of the cardiac cycle in sequence are:
1. isovolumic contraction, ejection, isovolumic relaxation, passive ventricular filling, active ventricular filling.
2. isovolumic relaxation, isovolumic contraction, ejection, passive ventricular filling, active ventricular filling.
3. isovolumic contraction, isovolumic relaxation, ejection, passive ventricular filling, active ventricular filling.
4. isovolumic contraction, ejection, isovolumic relaxation, active ventricular filling, passive ventricular filling.
The amount of urine produced is generally increased when there is:
1. increased ADH secretion
2. increased atrial natriuretic hormone secretion
3. increased aldosterone secretion
4. sympathetic stimulation of the renal arteries
You are inserting your gene of interest into the Lac Z gene in a plasmid also containing a tetracycline-resistant gene. You plate your transformed bacteria on media containing tetracycline and X-gal. Which of the following results would indicate a clone with recombinant plasmids?
1. | A clone which did not grow on the tetracycline plates |
2. | A white colony on the tetracycline plates |
3. | A blue colony on the tetracycline plates |
4. | A red colony on the tetracycline plates |
Photochemical smog does not contain:
1. | O3 | 2. | PAN |
3. | NOx | 4. | CO2 |
What adaptation would be seen in the kidneys of a mammal living in desert when compared to the kidneys in aquatic mammals?
1. | A higher percentage of cortical nephrons with short loop of Henle extending slightly into the medulla |
2. | A higher percentage of cortical nephrons with long loop of Henle extending deep into the medulla |
3. | A higher percentage of juxtamedullary nephrons with long loop of Henle extending deep into the medulla |
4. | Presence of only juxtamedullary nephrons with long loop of Henle extending deep into the medulla |
Semi-dwarf variety of rice developed in Taiwan is
1. Dee-geo-woo-gen
2. Taichung Native-1
3. IR-8
4. IR-36
Potato spindle tuber disease is caused by
1. A capsidated nucleic acid
2. ds, naked RNA
3. ss, naked RNA
4. Virusoid
A store house of collected plant specimens that are dried, pressed and preserved on sheets is known as
1. Flora
2. Manual
3. Herbarium
4. Botanical garden
Select an incorrect match
1. Psilopsida – Psilotum
2. Sphenopsida – Selaginella
3. Lycopsida – Lycopodium
4. Pteropsida – Dryopteris
Select incorrect statement(s):
(a) Both phloem loading and unloading are active processes.
(b) Loading of the phloem sets up root pressure that facilitates the mass movement in the phloem.
(c) As the hydrostatic pressure in the phloem sieve tube increases, pressure flow begins and the sap moves through
the phloem.
1. Both (b) & (c)
2. Both (a) & (c)
3. Only (b)
4. Only (c)
Match the following
Column-I Column-II
a. Mn (i) Nitrogenase
b. Fe (ii) Carbonic anhydrase
c. Mo (iii) Photolysis of water
d. Zn (iv) Catalase
1. a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
2. a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
3. a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
4. a(i), b(iv), c(ii), d(iii)
RQ value for tripalmitin is
1. > 1
2. < 1
3. Zero
4. Infinite
Some tissue are listed below, find a correct set of tissues which are product of redifferentiation in a woody
dicotyledonous plant
(a) Phellogen
(b) Phelloderm
(c) Cork
(d) Primary xylem
(e) Secondary phloem
(f) Interfascicular cambium
1. (a), (b) & (c)
2. (a) & (f)
3. (b), (c), (e) & (f)
4. (b), (c) & (e)
Which of the following statement is not related to red muscle fibres?
1. High myoglobin content
2. Plenty of mitochondria
3. Depends on aerobic process for energy
4. Amount of sarcoplasmic reticulum is highest
Deltoid ridge is the characteristic feature of
1. Humerus
2. Radius
3. Femur
4. Tibia
A cross section at the midpoint of the middle piece of a human sperm will show
1. centriole, mitochondria and 9+2 arrangement of microtubules
2. centriole and mitochondria
3. mitochondria and 9+2 arrangement of microtubules
4. 9+2 arrangement of microtubules only
Which of the following statement is incorrect with respect to menstrual cycle?
1. Menstrual flow results due to breakdown of endometrial lining of the uterus and its blood vessels which forms liquid that comes out through vagina
2. The secretion of LH and FSH increases gradually during the follicular phase
3. Cyclic menstruation is an indicator of normal reproductive phase
4. The follicular phase is followed by menstrual phase
In which of the following organ immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen sensitive lymphocytes?
1. Thymus
2. Spleen
3. Peyer’s patches
4. Appendix
If a person shows the production of interferons in his body, he suffers from
1. Tetanus
2. Tuberculosis
3. Measles
4. Typhoid
Insulin cannot be administered orally to diabetic patient because of its
1. Proteinaceous nature
2. Disulphide
3. Lipid nature
4. All of these
Which of the following was the first transgenic animal?
1. Transgenic salmon
2. Transgenic chicken
3. Transgenic mice
4. Transgenic rabbits
The respiratory centre in the brain is stimulated by
1. CO2 concentration in venous blood
2. O2 concentration in arterial blood
3. CO2 concentration in arterial blood
4. O2 concentration in venous blood
Which of the following geographical region has maximum number of ‘Hot spots’ of biodiversity?
1. Asia-Pacific
2. Africa
3. South America
4. Europe and Central Asia
Which one of the following species is more susceptible to extinction due to narrow range of geographical distribution?
1. Blue whale
2. Woodland caribou
3. Rhinoceros
4. Bald eagle
Which of the following bacteria is generally an indicator of faecal pollution?
1. E. coli
2. Vibrio cholera
3. Daphnia
4. Cyclops
Antipodal cells are always present in all type of embryo sacs except in
1. Oenothera
2. Panaea
3. Allium
4. Adoxa
In photorespiration (C2 cycle)
1. Glycolate is oxidised in mitochondria
2. CO2 is released in peroxisome
3. Expenditure of ATP occurs
4. Light is utilised by all three organelles involved
Which of the following PGR can cause tightening of epicotyl hook during seed germination?
1. GA
2. CK
3. C2H4
4. ABA
Male cones in Pinus
1. Arise in place of long shoots
2. Develop singly
3. Are largest in plant kingdom
4. Are equivalent to male flowers of angiosperms
In dicot young leaf, vascular bundles are
1. Conjoint, collateral and open
2. Radial and open
3. Conjoint, collateral and closed
4. Concentric, collateral and open
Multiple/Composite fruits
1. Are always false (Pseudocarps)
2. Develop from many ovaries of single flower
3. Are always dry
4. Are always parthenocarp
Methanogenic bacteria show
1. Chemolithoautotrophic nutrition
2. Ability to survive at high O2 conc.
3. Presence of pseudomurein in cell membrane
4. Development of bacteriorhodopsin in cell wall
Aggregate fruits
1. Are always true
2. Are actually aggregate of simple fruits
3. Arise from many ovaries of many flowers
4. Arise from inflorescence
Calvin cycle (C3 cycle)
1. | Is a feature of all chloroplast containing cells in plants |
2. | Is the main sugar-producing cycle in C3, C4, and CAM plants |
3. | Has both oxidative and reductive reactions |
4. | Occurs in darkness only |
Who have described cell membrane to be “protein icebergs in a sea of lipids”?
1. Singer and Nicolson
2. Overton
3. Robertson
4. Davson
For cell cycle, find incorrect statement
1. G1 phase is of longer duration
2. Both euchromatin and heterochromatin replicate at same rate
3. Duration of S phase is same for all dividing cell in human body
4. Active genes replicate earlier than heterochromatic regions
Stomatal opening is promoted by
1. High temperature and waterlogging in soil
2. High temperature and low atmospheric humidity
3. High light intensity and high CO2 concentration in atmosphere
4. Low wind/air movement and waterlogged soil
Pollen grains in angiosperms
1. Show precocious germination
2. Are discharged at 2-3 celled stage
3. Have outer wall which is gametophytic in origin
4. More than one option is correct
Choose wrong statement for ecological pyramids
1. Decomposers are not given place
2. Producers are always placed at base
3. Energy pyramid is always erect
4. Food web is taken in place of food chain
Which one of the following features is shown by diatoms?
1. Have haplontic life cycle
2. Divide by budding
3. Have vacuolated cytoplasm
4. Produce zoospores
Which of the following is not a characteristic of climax community in ecological succession?
1. It is seldom replaced
2. Members are adapted to mesic conditions
3. Nutrient conservation is low
4. Members are both large sized and small sized
All forms of plastids
1. Contain DNA
2. Can divide by budding
3. Have equal size
4. Are for storage only
Medulla oblongata controls various involuntary movements of the body except
1. Vasomotor centre to regulate the diameter of blood vessels
2. It has reflex centre for swallowing, vomiting peristalsis, coughing and sneezing
3. It can modify or tone up the motor activities which originate from cerebrum
4. It has cardiac and respiratory centre to regulate heart beat and respiration
Neurohypophysis store and release hormones which are actually synthesised by the hypothalamus and are transported axonally here. Which of the following hormones belong to this category?
1. Glucocorticoid gonadotropins
2. FSH, LH
3. Oxytocin, Vasopressin
4. TSH, ACTH
The number of essential amino acids in case of adult human body is 8. Which are the semi-essential amino acids, required by children?
1. Histidine, Arginine
2. Phenylalanine, Lysine
3. Threonine, Valine
4. Tryptophan, Leucine
Mark the mismatched option
1. Non competitive inhibition – Organo-phosphate insecticides developed on the basis of this inhibition; they inhibit the action of the enzyme acetylcholinesterase
2. Allosteric inhibition – Glucose 6- phosphate inhibits the action of the enzyme hexokinase
3. Competitive inhibition – Succinic dehydrogenase inhibition by malonate
4. Non competitive inhibition – Sulphonamide drugs developed on the basis of their inhibition action on prokaryotic enzyme involved in folic acid synthesis
In neonate there is switch over in respiratory and circulatory system. The switch over is initiated by hormone
1. Estrogen
2. Prostaglandin
3. Nitric oxide
4. Ethylene
One group of restricted endonucleases produce short single stranded ends which can join single stranded ends of other DNA fragments having complementary sequences. Find the enzyme which does not belongs to this category
1. Eco RI
2. Bam HI
3. Sal I
4. Sma
Which part of the brain deals with a mixture of signals of smell and memories and is essential for learning?
1. Hypothalamus
2. Septum
3. Amygdala
4. Hippocampus
One of the following hormones do not enter inside the target cell but still leads to certain biochemical changes in the target tissue. Mark the same
1. Thyroxine
2. Cortisol
3. Glucagon
4. Progesterone
Which of the following statements correctly define Bohr’s effect, in which the curve will shift towards right hand side?
1. Rise in pH
2. Decrease in temperature
3. Fall in P50 value
4. Rise in P50 value
When cotton bollworm attacks the cotton plant, bolls develop holes and opens prematurely and has poor lint. Loss of crop yield varies from 8-60%. Protective spray of insecticide is quite expensive. So which genes have been incorporated to protect the plant?
1. cry I and cry III
2. cry I Ac, cry II Ab
3. cry I A and cry IB
4. cry I Ab
Who made huts, used skin of animals and barks of trees as clothes and started burial ceremony for the first time?
1. Homohabilis
2. Java man
3. Neanderthal man
4. Cro-magnon man
Which extra embryonic membrane in humans prevents desiccation of the embryo inside the uterus?
1. Chorion
2. Allantois
3. Yolk sac
4. Amnion
In which of the following STD’s, painful blisters appears on the prepuce, glans penis and penile shaft in males and on the vulva in the vagina in females?
1. Syphilis
2. Gonorrhea
3. Genital herpes
4. Genital warts
When more than one adaptive radiations takes place in an isolated geographical area, one can call this
1. Divergent evolution
2. Convergent evolution
3. Parallel evolution
4. Co-evolution
Which of the following statement is incorrect about menstrual cycle?
1. LH Surge causes ovulation at the mid of the menstrual cycle
2. Corpus luteum is formed by graafian follicle on the next day of ovulation under the influence of progesterone
3. Abrupt fall in progesterone is the instant cause of menstruation
4. Corpus luteum remains active about 10-12 days in a normal menstruating female
Which of the following chemical doesn’t help in acrosomal reaction?
1. Hyaluronidase
2. Corona penetrating enzyme
3. Zona-lysin
4. Plasmolysin
Identify A, B and C in the diagrammatic representation of the mechanism of hormone action.
Select the correct option from the following:
1. | A = Steroid Hormone; B = Hormone receptor Complex; C = Protein |
2. | A = Protein Hormone; B = Receptor; C = Cyclic AMP |
3. | A = Steroid Hormone; B = Receptor; C = Second Messenger |
4. | A = Protein Hormone; B = Cyclic AMP; C = Hormone-receptor Complex |
Which is the most common type of embryo sac in angiosperms?
1. Tetrasporic with one mitotic stage of division
2. Monosporic with three sequential mitotic divisions
3. Monosporic with two sequential mitotic divisions
4. Bisporic with two sequential mitotic divisions
Given below are four statements pertaining to the separation of DNA fragments using gel electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect statements:
(a) | DNA is a negatively charged molecule and so it is loaded on gel towards the anode terminal. |
(b) | DNA fragments travel along the surface of the gel, whose concentration does not affect the movement of DNA. |
(c) | The smaller the DNA fragment, the greater the distance it travels through it. |
(d) | Pure DNA can be visualized directly by exposing it to UV radiation. |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. | (a), (c) and (d) | 2. | (a), (b) and (c) |
3. | (b), (c) and (d) | 4. | (a), (b) and (d) |
Consider the hydrated ions of . The correct order of their spin-only
magnetic moments is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
At 300 K and 1 atmospheric pressure, 10 mL of a hydrocarbon required 55 mL of for complete combustion, and 40 mL of is formed. The formula of the hydrocarbon is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Number of stereo centers present in linear and cyclic structures of glucose are
respectively
1. 4 & 5
2. 5 & 5
3. 4 & 4
4. 5 & 4
100 ml of 0.3 M HCl solution is mixed with 100 ml of 0.35 M NaOH solution. The amount of heat liberated is
1. 7.3 kJ
2. 5.71 kJ
3. 10.42 kJ
4. 1.713 kJ
The carboxyl functional group (–COOH) is present in
1. picric acid
2. barbituric acid
3. ascorbic acid
4. aspirin
As per IUPAC nomenclature, the name of the complex is
1. Tetraaquadiaminecobalt (III) chloride
2. Tetraaquadiamminecobalt (III) chloride
3. Diaminetetraaquacobalt (III) chloride
4. Diamminetetraaquacobalt (III) chloride
The number of aldol reaction(s) that occurs in the given transformation is
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
The number of optically active products obtained from the complete ozonolysis of the given compound is
1. 0
2. 1
3. 2
4. 4
The heat evolved in the combustion of 112 litres of water gas(mix of equal volumes of H2 and CO)
1. 241.8 kJ
2. 283 kJ
3. 1312 kJ
4. 1586 kJ
Give IUPAC name.
(1) 5-Hydroxy cyclohex-3-en-1-one
(2) 3-Hydroxy cyclohex-5-en-1-one
(3) 8-Hydroxy cyclohex-3-en-1-one
(4) 7-Hydroxy cyclohex-5-en-1-one
Reactivity order for SN1
(i)
(ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(1) i>ii>iii>iv
(2) ii>i>iii>iv
(3) iii>ii>i>iv
(4) iv>iii>ii>i
Which is incorrect
(1) Novestrol — Antifertility
(2) Serotonine — Tranquilizer
(3) Narrow spectrum — Chloromphenicol
(4) Rentac– antacid
1 mole Ideal gas expand isothermally reversibly 2 lt. to 4lt and same gas 3 mole expand from 2 lt. to x lt and doing same work, what is 'x'
(1)
(2)
(3) 2
(4) 4 lt
Which gas use in cooling tube in MRI tube ?
(1) He
(2) Ar
(3) CO2
(4) N2
It first order reaction 80% reaction complete in 60 minute, What is of reaction
(1) 30 min
(2) 42 min
(3) 26 min
(4) 14.28 min
A gas metal in bivalent state have approximately 23e– what is spin magnetic moment in elemental state
(1) 2.87
(2) 5.5
(3) 5.9
(4) 4.9
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these
product
Structure of Guanine is
(4) None
in aquous medium form green coloured complex with NH3 ligand. How many ligand associated
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6
Which molecule pair do not have identical structure
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Which process use in smelting during metallurgy of coper
(1) Self reduction of copper
(2) Cu2S is converted into Cu2O
(3) FeS convert into FeO
(4) Reduction of Fe
Number of electrons involved in the electrode deposition of 63.5g of Cu from a solution of is-
In acidic medium which of the following does not change its colour:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
1 gm of polymer having molar mass 1,60,000 gm dissolve in 800 ml water, so calculate osmotic pressure in pascal at 27°C (R = 8.314 J/K mole)
(1) 0.78
(2) 0.90
(3) 0.50
(4) 1.20
AgNO3 does not decompose under :
(1) U.V. radiation
(2) Skin (human)
(3) Water 25ºC
(4) Glucose
What is maximum wavelength of line of Balmer series of Hydrogen spectrum (R = 1.09 x 107 m–1)
(1) 400 nm
(2) 654 nm
(3) 486 nm
(4) 434 nm
H2S gas passed in all the following test tube so that precipitation abserve so which is correct match :
Cu, Sb Zn, Cd, Pb, Sn, Ni
(1) Cd – Black
(2) Sb – orange
(3) Ni – Yellow
(4) Zn – Brown
Which contain at least one e–in 2p anti bonding MO
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
What is impact on benzene in magnetic field :
(1) Strong attract
(2) Weakly attract
(3) Strongly repel
(4) weak repel
Removal of charge from colloids :
(1) Peptizaiton
(2) Coagulation
(3) Dialysis
(4) Bredig arc method
In Alum:
Which metal can replace Al
(1) Cr
(2) Mn
(3) In
(4) Sc
Rate of two reaction whose rate constants are k1 & k2 are equal at 300 k such that :
So calculate
(1) ln4
(2) 2
(3) log 2
(4) 2-ln2
Which of the following exhibit minimum number of oxidation states :
(1) Mn
(2) Np
(3) Th
(4) Cr
0.1 mole, per liter solution present in conductivity cell where the electrode of 100 cm2 area placed at 1 cm and resistance observe is 5 x 103 Ohm, what is molar conductivity of solution?
1. 5×102 S cm2 mol-1
2. 104 S cm2 mol-1
3. 200 S cm2 mol-1
4. 0.02 S cm2 mol-1
Mixture of two metals having mass 2 gm (A = 15, B = 30) and are bivalent and dissolve in HCl and evolve 2.24 L H2 at STP. what is mass of A present in mixture?
(1) 1 gm
(2) 1.5 gm
(3) 0.5 gm
(4) 0.75 gm
2 mole each A and B present in 10 litre so that C form is 1 mole, Calculate KC
(1) 1.5
(2) 6.67
(3) 0.15
(4) 2.3
In vanderwaal equation at const. temperature 300 K, a = 1.4 atm lt2 mole–2,v=100ml, n = 1 mole, what is pressure of gas :
1. 42 atm
2. 210 atm
3. 500 atm
4. 106 atm
Which of the following Is not considered as an organometallic compound?
1. Cisplatin
3. Ferrocene
4. Zeise's salt
4. Grignard reagent
The statements true for is :
1. It has a non-linear structure
2. It is called pseudohalogen
3. The formal oxidation state of nitrogen in this anion is -1
4. It is isoelectronic with
The metal which expands on solidification is:
1. Ga
2. AI
3. Zn
4. Cu
The strongest base among the followIng Is?
1.
2.
3.
4.
The average osmotic pressure of human blood Is 7.8 bar at 37° C. What Is the concentration of an aqueous NaCI solution that could be used In the bloodstream?
1. 0.15 moI/ L
2. 0.32 moI/L
3. 0.60 moI/ L
4. 0.45 moI/ L
How much energy Is released when 6 moles of octane Is burnt in air? Given for (g), (g) .and (l) respectively are - 490 - 240 and + 160 J / mol.
1. -6.2kJ
2. -37.4kJ
4. -35.5kJ
4. -20.0kJ
The crystal system of a compound with unit cell dimensions a = 0 .387 , b = 0 .387 and c = 0 .504 nm and = = 90° and = 120° Is :
1. Cubic
2. Hexagonal
3. Orthorhombic
4. Rhombohedral
In a LCR circuit, capacitance is changed from C to 2C. For the resonant frequency to remain unchanged, the inductance should be changed from L to:
1. 4L
2.
3.
4. 2L
The current through an ideal P-N junction shown in the following circuit diagram will be
(1) zero
(2) 1 mA
(3) 10 mA
(4) 30 mA
Select the outputs Y of the combination of gates shown below for inputs A=1, B=0; A=1, B=1 and A=0, B=0 respectively:
(1) (001)
(2) (101)
(3) (111)
(4) (100)
The binding energies of the atoms of elements A and B are respectively. Three atoms of the element B fuse to give one atom of element A. This fusion process is accompanied by released of energy e. Then are related to each other as
1.
2.
3.
4.
The longest wavelength that a single ionized helium atom in its ground state will absorb is
(1) 912
(2) 304
(3) 229
(4) 687
A sample contains 16 g of a radioactive material, the half-life of which is 2 days. After 32 days the amount of radioactive material left in the sample is
(1) Less than 1 mg
(2) (1/4) g
(3) (1/2) g
(4) 1 g
If the deBroglie wavelength of a proton is , the electric potential through which it must have been accelerated is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
The maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons from a metal surface of work function 2.5 eV is 1.7 eV. If wavelength of incident radiation is halved, then stopping potential will be -
(1) 2.5 V
(2) 5.9 V
(3) 5 V
(4) 1.1 V
A concave lens of focal length F produces an image equal to 1/n of size of object. The distance of the image from the lens is
(1) (n+1)F
(2) (n-1)F
(3)
(4)
A ray of light falls on a prism ABC (AB=BC) and travels as shown in figure. The refractive index of the prism material should be greater than:
1. | \(4 /{3}\) | 2. | \( \sqrt{2}\) |
3. | \(1.5\) | 4. | \( \sqrt{3}\) |
In a Young's double slit experiment, the slit separation is 1 mm and the screen is 1 m from the slit. For a monochromatic light of wavelength 500 nm, the distance of third minimum from the central maximum is
(1) 0.50 mm
(2) 1.25 mm
(3) 1.50 mm
(4) 1.75 mm
An astronomical telescope has magnifying power \(10.\) The focal length of the eyepiece is \(20\) cm. The focal length of the objective is:
1. \(\frac{1}{200}\) cm
2. \(\frac{1}{2}\) cm
3. \(2\) cm
4. \(200\) cm
Instantaneous displacement current 1 A in the space between the parallel plates of 1 F capacitor can be established by changing the potential difference at the rate of:
1. 0.1 V/s
2. 1 V/s
3.
4.
If the flux of magnetic induction through a coil of resistance R and having n turns changes from , then the magnitude of the charge that passes through the coil is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A bar magnet has a magnetic moment of 2.5 and is placed in a magnetic field of 0.2 T. Work done in turning the magnet from parallel to anti-parallel position relative to field direction is
(1) 0.5 J
(2) 1 J
(3) 2 J
(4) 0 J
A particle of charge per unit mass is released from origin with velocity in a uniform magnetic field . If the particle passes through (0, y, 0), then y is equal to
1.
2.
3.
4.
Two straight long conductors AOB and COD are perpendicular to each other and carry currents . The magnitude of the magnetic induction at a point P at a distance 'a' from the point O in a direction perpendicular to the plane ACBD is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
The total current supplied to the circuit by the battery is
(1) 1 A
(2) 2 A
(3) 4 A
(4) 6 A
AB is a wire of uniform resistance. The galvanometer G shows zero current when the length AC=20 cm and CB=80 cm. The resistance R is equal to
(1)
(2) 8
(3) 20
(4) 40
A capacitor of capacitance C is connected with a battery of emf as shown. After full charging, a dielectric of same size as capacitor and dielectric constant k is inserted. Choose correct statements. (Capacitor is always connected to battery).
(1) Electric field between plates of capacitor remains same
(2) Charge on capacitor is 0.3C
(3) Energy on capacitor decreased
(4) Electric field between plates of capacitor increased
There is an electric field E in x-direction. If work done in moving a charge 0.2 C through a distance of 2 m along a line making an angle of with x-axis is 4.0 J. The value of E is
(1)
(2) 4 N/C
(3) 5 N/C
(4) 20 N/C
Three charges Q, +q and +q are placed at the vertices of a right angle triangle (isosceles triangle) as shown. The net electrostatic energy of the configuration is zero, if Q is equal to
(1)
(2)
(3) -2q
(4) +q
A half ring of radius R has a charge of per unit length. The potential at the centre of the half ring is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) k
An ideal heat engine working between temperatures has efficiency . If both the temperature are raised by 100 K each, the new efficiency of the heat engine will be
(1) equal to
(2) greater than
(3) less than
(4) greater or less than depending upon the nature of the working substance
A cyclic process ABCD is shown in the P-V diagram. Which of the following curves represent the same process?
A substance of mass m kg requires power input of P watts to remain in the molten state at its melting point. When the power is turned off, the sample completely solidifies in time t second. What is the latent heat of fusion of the substance?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
Heat is associated with,
(1) Kinetic energy of random motion of molecules.
(2) Kinetic energy of orderly motion of molecules.
(3) Total kinetic energy of random and orderly motion of molecules.
(4) Kinetic energy of random motion in some cases and kinetic energy of orderly motion in other.
Maximum velocity in SHM is . The average velocity during the motion from one extreme point to the other extreme point will be
1.
2.
3.
4.
A sonometer wire of density d and radius r is held between two bridges at a distance L apart. The wire has a tension T. The fundamental frequency of the wire will be
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
A whistle giving out 450 Hz approaches a stationary observer at a speed of 33 m/s. The frequency heard by the observer in Hz is (speed of sound = 330 m/s)
(1) 409
(2) 429
(3) 517
(4) 500
A vessel of \(1\times 10^{-3}\) m3 volume contains oil. When a pressure of \(1.2 \times10^5\) N/m2 is applied on it, then volume decreases by \(0.3 \times 10^{-6}\) m3. The bulk modulus of oil is:
1. | \(1 \times 10^6 \mathrm{~N} / \mathrm{m}^2 \) | 2. | \(2 \times 10^7 \mathrm{~N} / \mathrm{m}^2 \) |
3. | \(4 \times 10^8 \mathrm{~N} / \mathrm{m}^2 \) | 4. | \(6 \times 10^{10} \mathrm{~N} / \mathrm{m}^2\) |
A block A of mass 10 kg, connected to another hollow block B of same size and negligible mass, by a spring of spring constant 500 N/m, floats in water as shown in figure. The compression in the spring is
(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 50 cm
(4) 100 cm
A soap bubble is blown slowly at the end of a tube by a pump supplying air at a constant rate. Which one of the following graphs represents the correct variation of the excess pressure inside the bubble with time?
A uniform spherical shell gradually shrinks maintaining its shape. The gravitational potential at the centre:
1. increases
2. decreases
3. remains constant
4. oscillates
A wheel is rotating at 900 rpm about its axis. When power is cut off ,it comes to rest in 1 minute.The angular retardation is rad/, then the value of n is .
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
Two balls of mass M = 9 g and m = 3 g are attached by massless threads AO and OB. The length AB is 1 m. They are set in rotational motion in a horizontal plane about a vertical axis at O with constant angular velocity . The ratio of length OB and AO for which the tension in threads are same will be-
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
Three particles A, B and C of equal mass, move with equal speed v along the medians of an equilateral triangle as shown in the figure. They collide at the centroid G of the triangle. After collision, A comes to rest and B retraces its path with speed v. What is the speed of C after collision?
(1) 0
(2)
(3) v
(4) 2v
During inelastic collision between two bodies, which of the following quantities always remain conserved?
1. Total kinetic energy
2. Total mechanical energy
3. Total linear momentum
4. Speed of each body
A block of mass m=0.1 kg is released from a height of 4 m on a curved smooth surface. On the horizontal surface, path AB is smooth and path BC offers coefficient of friction . If the imapact of block with the vertical wall at C be perfectly elastic, the total distance covered by the block on the horizontal surface before coming to rest will be: (take g = 10
(1) 29 m
(2) 49 m
(3) 59 m
(4) 109 m
A body moves along a path PQR from P to R shown as a dashed line in figure. When the particle is at Q, its speed is decreasing. The acceleration of the particle at Q is best represented by the vector-
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
A block of mass 2 kg is resting over another block of mass 6 kg. 2 kg block is connected to one end of a string fixed to a vertical wall as shown. If the co-efficient of friction between the blocks is 0.4, the force required to pull out the 6 kg block with an acceleration of 1.5 will be (g=10)
(1) 17 N
(2) 9 N
(3) 8 N
(4) 1 N
The displacement of a particle is given by where x is in metres and t is in seconds. The distance covered by the particle in the first 4 sec is:
1. 4 m
2. 8 m
3. 12 m
4. 16 m
The horizontal range of a projectile fired at an angle of is 50 m. If it is fired with the same speed at an angle of , its range will be
(1) 60 m
(2) 71 m
(3) 100 m
(4) 141 m
Rain is falling vertically with a speed of 30 . A woman rides a bicycle at a speed of 10 in the north to south direction. What is the direction with vertical in which she should hold her umbrella?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
If the vectors are perpendicular to each other, then the positive value of a is
1. zero
2. 1
3. 2
4. 3