Read the following statements
Statement A: In agarose gel electrophoresis, the smaller the fragment size of DNA, the farther it moves from the well.
Statement B: Separation of proteins in normal electrophoresis is based on both size and charge.
Choose the correct option
(1) Both statements are correct
(2) Statement B is correct and A is incorrect
(3) Statement B is incorrect
(4) Statement A is incorrect
____________ is a thermophilic bacterium that can survive temperatures upto C. Select the option which fills the blank correctly.
1. Thermus aquaticus
2. Salmonella typhi
3. E.coli
4. Lactobacillus
Choose the nematode which infects the roots of tobacco plants causing a great reduction in yield:
1. A. tumefaciens
2. M. incognita
3. S. Typhimurium
4. B. thuringiensis
Select the odd one with respect to ringworms:
1. Microsporum
2. Epidermophyton
3. Salmonella
4. Trichophyton
Cocaine is obtained from the extract of
1. Cannabis sativa
2. Atropa belladonna
3. Erythroxylum coca
4. Papaver somniferum
Select the two core techniques that enabled the birth of modern biotechnology:
1. Genetic engineering and bioprocess engineering
2. Genetic engineering and biolistics
3. Chemical engineering and biopiracy
4. Downstream processing and bioprocess engineering
Select the incorrect match with respect to placental mammals and Australian marsupials.
(1) Lemur : Spotted cuscus
(2) Bobcat : Tasmanian tiger
(3) Anteater : Numbat
(4) Koala : Flying squirrel
Select the incorrect statement
1. Agarose is most commonly used matrix in gel electrophoresis for nucleic acids
2. Spooling is the cutting out of seperated DNA bands from gel piece
3. PCR is used for in vitro synthesis of DNA of interest
4. infection of A. tumefaciens in dicot plants can cause crown gall disease.
According to Hardy - weinberg principle, the frequency of homozygous recessive (aa) individuals in a population is denoted by
1.
2. 2pq
3.
4. p + q
In a human female, the menstrual cycle is of 24 days. What will be the length of follicular phase and luteal phase if the menstrual phase is for four days?
Follicular Phase Luteal Phase
1. 14 days 6 days
2. 6 days 14 days
3. 10 days 10 days
4. 10 days 14 days
Match column I and column II with respect to cranial capacity
Column I Column II
a. Homo erectus (i) 650 - 800 cc
b. Homo sapiens (ii) 1650 cc
c. Cro-Magnon man (iii) 1400 cc
d. Homo habilis (iv) 900 cc
Choose the correct option
1. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
2. a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
3. a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
4. a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
Mutations are proposed by Hugo de Vries are
1. Small and directional
2. Gradual and continous
3. Random and directionless
4. Large and directional
Identify the STI (Sexually Transmitted Infection) caused due to a protozoan.
1. Trichomoniasis
2. Gonorrhoea
3. Chancroid
4. Syphilis
Hardy-Weinberg equation is used to check
1. Size of population
2. Whether evolution is occuring in a population or not
3. Average lifespan of a population
4. Maximum life expectancy of a population
Male reproductive system does not comprise of
(1) Prostate gland and cowper's glands
(2) Bulbourethral glands and seminal vesicles
(3) Seminal vesicles and urinogenital duct
(4) Bartholin's gland and paraurethral gland
HIV enters the humans cells by recognising the receptors on their membrane with the help of its glycoprotein.
1. P17
2. P24
3. GP41
4. GP120
During oogenesis, meiosis I in a female is completed in ___________ within __________ respectively.
Select the option which fill the blanks correctly.
1. Secondary oocyte, tertiary follicle
2. Primary oocyte, tertiary follicle
3. Primary oocyte, graafian follicle
4. Secondary oocyte, graafian follicle
Opinion of how many registered medical practitioners is required for MTP, if the pregnancy has lasted more than 12 weeks, but fewer than 24 weeks?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
The shedding of endometrium during menstruation occurs due to decline in concentration of
1. Estrogen
2. Progesterone
3. Oxytocin
4. FSH
Read the given statements
Statement A: Umbilical cord carries only foetal blood.
Statement B: Structure which connects foetus to placenta is umbilical cord.
Choose the correct option.
(1) Both statements are incorrect
(2) Statement A is incorrect
(3) Only statement B is correct
(4) Both statements are correct
Select the closest relative of man among the following
(1) Gibbon
(2) Orangutan
(3) Gorilla
(4) Chimpanzee
Graphical representation of ovarian and pituitary hormones are given below. Identify the hormones A, B, C and D
1. A - estrogen, B - progesterone, C - LH, D - Fish
2. A - FSH, B - LH, C - estrogen, D - Progesterone
3. A - progesterone, B - estrogen, C - LH, D - FSH
4. A - Progesterone, B - estrogen, C - FSH, D - LH
The first movement of foetus and appearance of hair on the head are usually observed during
1. month
2. month
3. month respectively
4. month respectively
Adaptive radiation can be observed in all cases except
1. marsupial radiation
2. Variety of beaks in Darwin's finches
3. Placental diversification in North American
4. Wing structure of butterfly, bat and bird
Which type of natural selection is illustrated by industrial melanism?
1. Directional selection
2. Balancing selection
3. Disruptive selection
4. stabilising selection
Which of the following is correctly matched?
1. Homology - Convergent evolution
2. Analogy - Divergent evolution
3. Biogenetic law - Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny
4. Avatism - Disappearance of certain ancestral characters
Charles Darwin was influenced by a population eassay written by
1. T.R. Malthus
2. Hugo de Vries
3. Alfred Wallace
4. Herbert Spencer
Select the correct match:
1. Dengue, chikungunya, filariasis - Vector borne disease
2. Acid, saliva, mucus in GIT - Physiological barriers
3. Histamine, cortisol, adrenaline - Anti-inflammatory compounds
4. Crack, smack, charas - Hallucinogens
Select the correct statement.
1. Physical barriers include acid in stomach, saliva in mouth and tears from eye
2. Rhinoviruses infect nose and upper respiratory tract causing common cold but do not infect lungs
3. Ruptures WBCs release hemozoin which is responsile for chill and high fever in malaria
4. Interleukins are synthesized within B-lymphocytes for production in antigens
All of the following are side effects of use of anabolic steroids in females except
1. Masculinisation
2. Mood swings
3. Enlargement of clitoris
4. Breast enlargement
Select the correct statement
1. Cells in a malignant tumor do not show contact inhibition
2. Computed tomography scans use non-ionising radiations to study cancer of internal organs.
3. AIDS is a retroviral disease caused by unenveloped HIV.
4. Treatment of AIDS with antiretroviral drugs is completely effective and always prevents death.
Abbreviation MOET stands for
1. Multiple Ova Embryo Transgenics
2. Multiple Ovary Embryo Transfer
3. Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer
4. Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transgenics
Which of the following is a correct match?
1. Treponema Pallidum - Causative agent of STI Syphilis
2. Castration - Emergency contraceptive methods
3. GIFT - in-vitro fertilization in surrogate mother
4. Saheli - Oral contraceptive, steroid pill developed at CDRI
Which is not a common mode of action between LNG20 and oral pill?
1. Inhibition of ovulation
2. Suppression of sperm motility and reduction of fertilizing ability of sperm
3. Alteration in quality of cervical mucus
4. Inhibition of implantation
Select the correct statement .
1. A restriction exonuclease cuts both strands of foreign DNA as well as vector DNA at specific palindromic sequences
2. A restriction endonuclease is named on the basis of scientific name and strain of bacteria from which it is isolated
3. All restriction enzymes cut the strands of DNA in the centre of palindromic site between the same two bases of opposite strand
4. When cut by same restriction enzyme, the resultant DNA fragments generate different kinds of sticky ends
Select the correct statement:
1. | RNAi is a post-transcriptional gene silencing method. |
2. | Transgenic tomatoes have been developed to reduce pre-harvest losses by decreasing their shelf lives. |
3. | In GMO, early exhaustion of fertility of soil is promoted. |
4. | Gene cryIAb controls infection by Meloidogyne incognita in tobacco plants. |
DNA fragments seperated by agarose gel electrophoresis are visualized by staining with
1. Ethidium bromide
2. Bromophenol blue
3. UV rays
4. Visible light
Nutritionally more balanced human protein (-lactalbumin) enriched milk was obtained from
1. Tracy the sheep
2. Dolly the clone
3. Rosie the cow
4. Polly the goat
Example of glyphosate resistant crop available in market is
1. Flavr - Savr
2. Bt cotton
3. Golden rice
4. Roundup Ready
Entry of DNA in a competent animal cell is due to the use of which ingredient / condition?
(1) Heat shock at C
(2) Cold treatment at
(3) Cold shock with calcium salts
(4) Lysozyme
Match column A with column B and select the correct option:
Column A | Column B | ||
a. | Plasmid | (i) | RNAi |
b. | Meloidogyne | (ii) | Transgenic cow |
c. | Rosie | (iii) | Gene Taxi |
d. | α -1-antitrypsin | (iv) | Emphysema |
1. a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv)
2. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
3. a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
4. a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
If in a plasmid pBR322 the sequence 5' GAATTC 3' appears at three sites, how many restriction fragments will result if we use BamHI for restriction digestion?
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One
First successful gene therapy was given to a child deficient in gene coding for enzyme:
1. Adenosine deaminase
2. Restriction Endonuclease
3. Streptokinase
4. Alcohol dehydrogenase
All of the following characters are related with Bt- toxin except:
1. Kills lepidopteran, dipteran, and coleopteran insects
2. The toxin is coded by a gene named cry
3. Activated in the midgut of insects in acidic medium
4. Causes lysis of cells in the epithelial lining of the midgut
Find the wrong match.
1. Wheat → Pusa Shubra
2. Cauliflower → Pusa Snowball K-1
3. Chilli → Pusa Sadabahar
4. Brassica → Pusa Swarnim
The most practical means to improve public health and enriching foods with vitamins and minerals would include.
1. Micropropagation.
2. Use of single cell proteins.
3. Biofortification.
4. Developing pest resistant crops.
In high yielding hybrid crop varieties,to exploit hybrid vigour, the farmers need to purchase fresh hybrid seed every year because :-
1. They are not allowed to grow their own seed
2. Hybrid vigour is lost due to inbreeding depression
3. It is cheaper to purchase fresh seed
4. None
Biological Pest Control methods are more preferably used because-
1. Chemical pesticides are discriminate
2. Predators work through check and balance
3. Predators are indiscriminate
4. All of above
Match the following list of bioactive substances and their roles :
Bioactive Substance-
(i) Statins (ii) Cyclosporin A (iii) Streptokinase (iv) Lipase
Role-
(A) Removal of oil stains
(B) Removal of clots from blood vessels
(C) Lowering of blood cholesterol
(D) Immuno-suppressive agent
Choose the correct match:
1. i B, ii C, iii A, iv D
2. i D, ii B, iii A, iv C
3. i B, ii A, iii D, iv C
4. i C, ii D, iii B, iv A
In hydrarch succession pioneer is phytoplankton and climax is forest (mesic). Given below is name of seral stages, arrange them in accordance with their appearance.
A. Submerged free floating plants B. Reed – swamp stage
C. Marsh meadow stage D. Submerged plant stage
E. Scrub stage
Option
1. A, B, C, D & E
2. B, A, C, D & E
3. D, A, C, B & E
4. D, A, B, C & E
Ecosystem requires constant supply of energy to synthesise the molecules they require for;
1. Storage, as when needed can be utilized
2. To counteract the universal tendency towards increasing disorderliness
3. As per first law of thermodynamics
4. None is correct
Further development of zygote depends upon?
1. Type of life cycle followed by organism.
2. Environment in which that zygote develops.
3. Behaviour of that organism.
4. Both (a) and (b)
“All organisms have to reach a certain stage of maturity and growth, before they can reproduce sexually”. How many of the following is true for above statement?
(I) It is known as juvenile phase.
(II) It is known as vegetative phase in plants.
(III) It is of different duration in different organisms.
(IV) It is of same duration in different organisms.
Options :
1. 4
2. 3
3. 2
4. 1
The above given diagram is an enlarged view of one microsporangium of a matured anther. Identify A, Band C
1. A - Middle layer, B - Endothecium, C – Tapetum
2. A - Endothecium, B - Tapetum, C - Middle layer
3. A - Endothecium, B - Middle layer, C – Tapetum
4. A- Tapetum, B - Middle layer, C – Endothecium
The inner wall of pollen grain:
1. Is thin, continuous and pecto cellulosic and is called intine
2. Comes out in the form of pollen tube through germpore
3. Is thick and consists of sporopollenin
4. (a) and (b)
During the formation of embryo sac from megaspore mitotic divisions occurs. These mitotic divisions are:
1. Strictly free nuclear
2. Strictly cellular
3. Strictly reduction
4. Strictly cytoplasmic
Which of the following statements is false about filiform apparatus?
1. The synergids have special cellular thickenings at the micropylar tip called filiform apparatus
2. It plays an important role in guiding the pollen tubes into the synergid
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. Pollen tube stimulates the formation of filiform apparatus
Which of the following plants produce(s) chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers?
1. Viola (Commonpansy)
2. Oxalis
3. Commelina
4. All of the above
Find out the correct option:
1. Among animals, insects, particularly bees are the dominant biotic pollinating agents
2. Often flowers of animal- pollinated plants are specially adapted for particular species of animals
3. In some species floral rewards like edible nectar, pollen grains, shelter for egg laying are given to pollinating animals
4. All the above are correct
Which of the following is not correct?
1. As the seed matures, its water content is reduced and seeds become relatively dry(10-15% moisture by mass)
2. The seed dormancy is the internal or innate inhibition of generation of normal or viable seeds
3. Embryo in dormant seed shows higher rate of general metabolic rate
4. Because of dormancy seeds remain viable for longer period and can be stored
Which of the following statements is false?
1. Some 2000 years old viable seeds of Pheonix dactylifera were discovered during archaeological excavation of King Herod's palace near Dead Sea
2. Record of 10,000 years of dormancy of seeds has been estimated in Lupinus arcticus
3. The number of seeds in each fruit in case of orchid and some parasitic forms like Orobanche and Striga is one
4. Many fruits have evolved mechanisms for dispersal of seeds
Match the columns with respect to the process of translation:
Column-I Column-II
1. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
2. a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
3. a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
4. a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
Match items in Column-I with Column-II:
Column-I Column-II
1. a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
2. a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
3. a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
4. a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
Consider the following statements regarding DNA fingerprinting:
i. The technique was initially developed by Alec Jeffreys.
ii. Hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe.
iii. Sensitivity of the technique has been increased by the use of PCR.
iv. Sequences used for DNA fingerprinting generally code for many proteins.
v. Monozygotic twins have identical DNA fingerprints.
1. All statements are correct
2. Only '4' is incorrect
3. 4 and 5 are incorrect
4. 1, 3, 4 and 5 are correct
Gametes are always haploid. What percent of sperms and ova of grasshopper lack 'x' body respectively?
1. 50% and 50%
2. 50% and 0%
3. 0% and 0%
4. 0% and 50%
Test cross is:
1. Cross between two homozygous genotype for different traits of same character
2. Cross between two heterozygous genotype of different character
3. Cross between one homozygous and one heterozygous genotype for different traits of same character
4. Cross between one heterozygous and homozygous of similar traits of same character
Which of the following scientist is responsible for the synthesis of protein in cell-free system?
1. Har Gobind Khorana
2. Marshall Nirenberg
3. Severo Ochoa
4. Frederic Sanger
Read the following four statements (A-D)
A. The characters blend in heterozygous condition.
B. Change in a single base pair of DNA does not cause mutation.
C. Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal aberrations.
D. In insect, sex chromosomes in male are ZZ and in females are ZW.
How many of the above statement is/are right?
1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. One
How many of the following statements is / are correct for polygenic inheritance?
(1) They show uniformity. (2) Controlled by three or more genes
(3) It is not influenced by environment.
(4) In polygenic inheritance phenotype reflects the contribution of dominant allele only.
Options :
1. 1 and 2
2. 2, 3 and 4
3. 1, 3 and 4
4. only 2
Which is not true for haplodiploid sex determination?
1. It is reported in honey bee.
2. In this male produces sperms by meiosis.
3. In this unfertilized egg develops as a male by means of parthenogenesis.
4. None
The deletion in chromosome number 16 results in which of the following genetic disorder?
1. Pleiotropy
2. Quantitative problem of RBC’s
3. Qualitative problem of RBC’s
4. Hypertrichosis
Conditions of a karyotype 2n ± 1 is observed in all except
1. Down syndrome
2. Turner’s syndrome
3. Phenyl ketonuria
4. Klinefelter’s syndrome
Choose the correct statement about recombination and linkage
1. Complete linkage results in higher non-parental gene combinations than parental type
2. Recombination results in generation of parental gene combinations
3. Genetic maps are constructed by using the frequency of recombination between gene pairs
4. T.H. Morgan constructed the first chromosome map
Which of the following is not the property of a molecule that can act as genetic material.
1. Able to replicate
2. Able to mutate
3. Chemically and structurally stable
4. Should express as dominant characters.
Distribution of newly synthesized DNA in the chromosomes is by semi-conservative means is experimentally shown by Taylor et al by using
1. Radioactive adenosine
2. Radioactive thymidine
3. Radioactive guanosine
4. Radioactive cytidine
During DNA replication, two strands of DNA cannot be separated in its entire length in one step because?
1. Due to high energy requirement
2. Due to complementary base pairing
3. Due to antiparallel nature of DNA strand
4. Due to absence of enzyme DNA polymerase
If due to mutation both the strands of DNA starts transcribing. Which of the following will not be the consequence of this?
1. Complicate the genetic information transfer machinery
2. One segment of DNA would code for two different protein
3. Will prevent translation
4. Will result in polyploidy
In nature, a given habitat has enough resources to support a maximum possible number, beyond which no further growth is possible. The limit is known as
1. Environmental resistance
2. Intrinsic rate of natural increase
3. Carrying capacity
4. Exponentially growth
Fitness of one species (measured in terms of intrinsic rate of increase) is significantly lower in the presence of another species during the interaction between
1. Barnacles and whale
2. Abingdon tortoise and goats
3. Ophrys and bee
4. Sea anemone and clown fish
Which the following pairs is wrongly matched while remaining three are correct
1. Allen’s rule – Mammals with shorter ears and limbs in colder area
2. Expanding population – High number of individual at pre-reproductive stage
3. Population density increasing – (B + I) < (D + E)
4. Carrying capacity – Logistic growth.
Consider the following four statements (A–D), select the correct option stating which ones are true (T) and which ones are false (F)
(A) Organism at each trophic level depends on those at higher trophic level for their energy demands.
(B) Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called standing crop.
(C) Each trophic level has a certain mass of non-living material at a particular time called standing state.
(D) The number of trophic levels in a grazing food chain is not restricted
A B C D
1. T T F F
2. F T F T
3. T F T F
4. F T T F
In any ecological pyramid, an organism can occupy how many trophic level.
1. Only one trophic level
2. More than one trophic level simultaneously
3. Can occupy more than one trophic level but not simultaneously
4. It can not be defined
Climax community is in a state of:
1. non-equilibrium
2. equilibrium
3. disorder
4. constant change.
Which of the following is an ecosystem service provided by a natural ecosystem?
1. Cycling of nutrients
2. Prevention of soil erosion
3. Pollutant absorption and reduction of the threat of global warming
4. All of the above
Which of the following is not correct with respect of control of vehicular air pollution in India?
1. Use of CNG as fuel
2. Not phasing out of old vehicles as they have better technology
3. Use of unleaded petrol, low-sulphur petrol and diesel
4. Use of catalytic converter
Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched remaining three are correct?
Legislation Year
1. Environment (Protection) Act 1986
2. Air (Prevention and control of pollution) Act 1981
3. Noise as on air pollutant 1987
4. Water (Prevention and control of pollution) Act 1984
DDT which is widely used, is responsible for which of the following effect
(A) Accumulates in human being as a result of biomagnifications
(B) Disturbs calcium metabolism in birds
(C) Responsible for decline in population of certain birds
(D) Acts as a signalling molecule in biochemical pathway
Select the correct option
1. I, II, IV is correct
2. I, II, III is correct
3. I, III, IV is correct
4. I, II, III, IV is correct
Consider the following four statements (A-D) related to Green house effect and Global warming and select the correct option stating which one are true (T) and which ones are false (F).
Statements
(A) It is responsible for maintaining average temperature at 18ºC
(B) CO2, CH4, CFC, N2O are green house gases
(C) Responsible for El Nino Effect
(D) Montreal protocol is for this
Options
A B C D
1. T T F F
2. F F T T
3. F T T F
4. T F F T
Which one of the following statement is totally wrong about greater biological diversity in tropics
1. Tropical latitude have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years
2. Tropical environment is more less constant and predictable
3. Soil here is very fertile
4. More solar energy is available.
Select the analogous structures :
1. WIngs of butterfly and birds
2. Flippers of penguins and dolphins
3. Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of cucurbita
4. More than one option is correct
If NaCl is doped with 10-4 mol % of SrCl2, the concentration of cation vacancies will be
(NA = 6.023 x 1023 mol-1)
1. 6.023 x 1015 mol-1
2. 6.023 x 1016 mol-1
3. 6.023 x 1017 mol-1
4. 6.023 x 1014 mol-1
The mass of a unit cell of CsCl corresponds to:-
1. 8Cs+ and Cl-
2. 1Cs+ and 6Cl-
3. 1Cs+ and 1Cl-
4. 4Cs+ and Cl-
A hypothetical reaction, A2 +B2 2AB mechanism as given below;
A2 A+ A ............(Fast)
A+B2 → AB + B ............(Slow)
A+ B → AB ............(Fast)
The order of the overall reaction is:
1. 2
2. 1
3. 1.5
4. zero
Consider the following reaction sequence:
\(\small{\begin{aligned}\xrightarrow[]{{Sn/HCl}}\ A \ \xrightarrow[0-5\ ^\circ C]{NaNO_2/HCl}\ B \ \xrightarrow[]{HBF_4}\ C \ \xrightarrow[Cu\ \Delta]{NaNO_2}\ D\end{aligned}}\)
The major product D in the above-mentioned reaction is:
1. | 2. | ||
3. | 4. |
The rate of a chemical reaction doubles for every 10°C rise of temperature. If the temperature is raised by 50°C, the rate of the reaction increases by about :
1. 10 times
2. 24 times
3. 32 times
4. 64 times
Monomer of natural rubber is:
1. 1, 3-butadiene
2. Isoprene
3. Styrene
4. Chloroprene
In the Haber's process for the manufacture of ammonia the catalyst used is
1. Fe
2. Co
3.
4. Pt
Calcium phosphide on complete hydrolysis gives
1.
2.
3.
4. None
If the mass percentage Of urea in an aqueous solution is 20% then molality of the solution will be
1. 5.25 m
2. 2.35 m
3. 4.17 m
4. 4.31 m
Which of the following aq. solutions will freeze at highest temperature?
1. 0.1 m NaCl
2. 0.1 m glucose
3. 0.1 m
4. 0.1 m
Number of tetrahedral voids occupied in a unit cell of the diamond is
1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 8
The standard electrode potential for Sn4+/Sn2+ couple is +0.15 V and that for the Cr3+/Cr couple is -0.74 V. These two couples in their standard state are connected to make a cell. The cell potential will be:
1. | +0.89 V | 2. | +0.18 V |
3. | +1.83 V | 4. | +1.199 V |
The incorrect statement about carbohydrates is :
1. Maltose is a reducing sugar.
2. They are stored in the animal body as glycogen.
3. Amylopectin constitutes about 15-20% Of starch.
4. Cellulose is composed of only -D- glucose units.
Equanil is used as:
1. Analgesic
2. Antibiotic
3. Tranquilizer
4. Antacid
The final product 'B' in the below-mentioned reaction is:
1. | Ester | 2. | Acetal |
3. | Ketal | 4. | Lactone |
If the activation energy is 65 kJ then the reaction at 25°C is .......times fast as compared to 0°C :-
1. 2 times
2. 5 times
3. 11 times
4. 16 times
A 5A current is passed through a solution of copper sulphate for 40 min. The amount of copper deposited at the cathode is:
1. | 40.65g | 2. | 0.45g |
3. | 3.94g | 4. | 65.04g |
Consider the following reaction sequence
Major product C is
1. 2.
3. 4.
The correct order of basic strength of the given compound is
1.
2.
3.
4.
The compound which is most easily decarboxylated on heating is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Intramolecular hygrogen bonding is absent in
1. o-Cresol
2. Salicyulaldehyde
3. Salicylic acid
4. Chloral hydrate
Which of the following order is incorrect regarding the indicated property?
1.
2.
3.
4.
In which of the following species the central atom is hybridised?
1.
2.
3.
4.
The complex that contains only one unpaired electron is:
1. [CoF6]3-
2. [Co(C2O4)3]3-
3. [Fe(CN)6]3-
4. [MnCl6]3-
Equivalent conductances of NaCl, HCl and C2H5COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and 91 . The equivalent conductance of C2H5COOH is :
1. 201.28
2. 390.71
3. 698.28
4. 540.48
sol can be most easily coagulated by
1.
2.
3.
4.
Correct order of electron affinity of given element is
1. F>Cl>Br>l
2. l>Br>Cl>F
3. Cl>F>Br>l
4. l>Br>F>Cl
Benzoic acid gives benzene on being heated with X and phenol gives benzene on being heated with Y. Therefore, X and Y are respectively
1. Sodalime and copper
2. Zn dust and NaOH
3. Cu and sodalime
4. Sodalime and zinc dust
Which metal can be purified by zone refining?
1. Ni
2. Zr
3. In
4. Fe
A certain current liberates 0.504 g of hydrogen in 2 hr. How many gram of copper can be liberated by the same current flowing for the same time in CuSO4 solution?
1. 12.7
2. 16
3. 31.8
4. 63.5
Ratio of the total energy of electron in the second orbit of to the first orbit of is
1. 2:3
2. 5:8
3. 9:16
4. 1:4
How many grams of copper metal will be deposited when a solution of copper sulphate is electrolyzed with a current of 9.65 amperes for 10 minutes? (IF 965m C, Atomic mass of cu = 63.5 u)
1. 2.59
2. 1.9g
3. 3.6g
4. 3.8 g
40 ml of 0.1 M solution is mixed with 50 ml of 0.2 M solution. Mole of AgCl formed in the reaction is
1.
2.
3.
4. 0.2 mol
If the rate constant of a chemical reaction is then the time required for the completion of 20% of the reaction will be
1. 48.43S
2. 22.33 s
3. 15.53 s
4. 65.31 s
In the below reaction, product 'P' is:
1. | 2. | ||
3. | 4. |
In a mercury cell, the electrolyte used is
1. A paste of and
2. A paste of KOH and ZnO
3. 38% solution 0t sulphuric acid
4. 20% solution of NaCl
The correct order of the boiling point of the given compound is
1.
2.
3.
4.
From the stability constant (hypothetical values)given below, predict which is the strongest ligand?
1. Cu2++4NH3[Cu(NH3)4]2+;(k=4.5x1011)
2. Cu2++4CN[Cu(CN)4]2-;(K=2.0x1027)
3. Cu2++2en[Cu(en)2]2+;(K=3.0x1015)
4. Cu2++4H2O[Cu(H2O)4]2+;(K=9.5x108)
The correct IUPAC name for Mn3(CO)12 is:
1. Dodecacarbonylmanganate(0)
2. Dodecacarbonylmanganate(II)
3. Dodecacarbonyltrimanganese(0)
4. Manganicdodecacarbonyl0)
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct option.
1. a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
2. a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
3. a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
4. a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i)
[Cr(H2O)6]Cl3 (At. no. of Cr = 24) has a magnetic moment of 3.83 BM.
What is the correct distribution of 3d electrons in the chromium of the complex:
1. 3d1xy, 3d1yz, 3d1z2
2. 3d(x2-y2), 3d1z2, 3d1xz
3. 3dxy, 3d(x2-y2), 3d1yz
4. 3d1xy, 3d1yz, 3d1zx
EAN of Fe in K3[Fe(CN)6] is
1. 34
2. 35
3. 36
4. 47
Among the following species, the highest bond order is of
1.
2.
3.
4. NO
Which of the following products are formed when potassium bromide reacts with potassium permanganate in alkaline pH?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Zinc dissolve in an excess of NaOH because of the formation of:
1. ZnO
2. Zn(OH)2
3. NaZn(OH)3
4. Na2ZnO2
A ring of radius 'R' having charge '2q' uniformly distributed over it passes through a sphere of same radius in such a way that centre of sphere lies at circumference of ring and centre of ring lies at surface of sphere. Then flux linked with sphere is
1.
2.
3.
4.
In the circuit as shown in figure, energy stored in capacitor at steady state at
1.
2.
3.
4.
In the following four situations, charged particles are at an equal distance from the origin. Arrange the magnitude of the net electric field at origin, starting with the highest.
(i) | (ii) |
(iii) | (iv) |
1. | (i) > (ii) > (iii) > (iv) | 2. | (ii) > (i) > (iii) > (iv) |
3. | (i) > (iii) > (ii) > (iv) | 4. | (iv) > (iii) > (ii) > (i) |
If two conducting spheres are separately charged and then brought in contact
1. The total energy of the two spheres is conserved
2. The total charge on the two spheres is conserved
3. Both the total energy and charge are conserved
4. The final potential is always the mean of the original potentials of the two spheres
In the given circuit current flowing through resistance is
1. 5 A
2. 2.5 A
3. Zero
4. 10 A
Two polaroids are placed such that their planes are parallel to each other with their axis of transmission at to each other. If an unpolarised light of intensity is incident in first polariser then intensity of light that will be transmitted through the second polaroid is
An electric dipole with dipole moment is placed in an electric field . An external agent turns the dipole slowly until its electric dipole moment becomes . The work done by the external agent is equal to:
1. 4 × 10–28 J
2. –4 × 10–28 J
3. 2.8 × 10–26 J
4. –2.8 × 10–26 J
Two bulbs of rated power 60 W and 100 W, same specified voltage 220 V, are connected in series to a 440 V DC source
(1) 60 W bulb gives more brightness
(2) 100 W bulb gives more brightness
(3) 100 W bulb will get fused
(4) 60 W bulb gets fused
In young's double slit experiment slit separation is d, and distance of screen from the slit is D (D>>d). If first dark fringe is formed infront of one of the slit, then wave length of light used will be
1.
A network of four capacitors of capacity equal to are connected to a battery as shown in the figure. The ratio of the charges on capacitor is -
1.
2.
3.
4.
Focal length of objective lens and eyepiece of an astronomical telescope are 200 cm and 10 cm respectively. The length of telescope for maximum magnification is nearly:
1. 207 cm
2. 210 cm
3. 204 cm
4. 220 cm
The following configuration of gate is equivalent to
(1) NAND
(2) XOR
(3) OR
(4) NOR
A ray of light is incident at an angle on one face of a prism which has refracting angle of . The emerging ray deviates through from incident light. The refractive index of material of prism is
If the balance point is obtained at the 35th cm in a metre bridge the resistances in the left and right gaps are in the ratio of
1. 7 : 13
2. 13 : 7
3. 9 : 11
4. 11 : 9
On an optical bench a point object is placed at the mark of 10 cm, a convex lens of focal length 15 cm at the mark of 40 cm and a concave lens of focal length 15 cm placed at the mark of 60 cm. The final image is formed at the mark of: (point object and two lenses are coaxial)
1. 30 cm
2. 80 cm
3. 90 cm
4. infinity
In the following circuit, the current flowing through zener diode is
(1) 10 mA
(2) 5 mA
(3) 6.67 mA
(4) 3.33 mA
Energy of a unielectron system in the first excited state is -13.6 eV. This is
(1) H atom
(2) ion
(3) ion
(4) ion
A proton and an alpha particle is projected with equal kinetic energy in transverse uniform magnetic field B. The ratio of radii of proton to that of alpha particle is
(1) 1:1
(2) 1:2
(3) 1:
(4) :1
Find the equivalent resistance across the terminals of source of e.m.f. 24 V for the circuit shown in figure
1. 15
2. 10
3. 5
4. 4
Two parallel conducting wires AB and CD placed at a separation of 1m are connected by a resistance of 3 and placed in uniform magnetic field of 2 T, which is perpendicular to the plane containing wires. Another wire PQ of length 2 m and resistance 2 , slides on the wires with speed 2 m/s perpendicular to field. The force required to move the wire PQ with constant speed is
(1) 1.6 N
(2) 2.0 N
(3) 8.0 N
(4) 1.0 N
A thin rod carrying current is placed near a ling straight wire carrying current in the plane of rod as shown in figure. The motion of rod is
1. Translatory
2. Rotatary
3. Translatory as well as rotatary
4. will not experience any force
In the circuit shown there is a box containing a resistor and an inductor and the box is in series with a capacitance C connected to alternating power source of frequency 2 rad/s. Box has power factor and circuit has overall power factor 1. The impedance of box is
1.
2.
3.
4.
If a closed current loop of any arbitary shape is placed in uniform magnetic field, then
1. Net force on loop is always zero and net torque may or may not be zero
2. Net force and net torque always zero
3. Both force and torque may or may not be zero
4. Torque is zero and net force may or may not be zero
After 225 days, the activity of a sample is 4000 decay/s. The activity reduces to 2000 decay/s after another 75 days. The initial activity of the sample is
(1) 16000 decay/s
(2) 20,000 decay/s
(3) 24,000 decay/s
(4) 32,000 decay/s
A nucleus at rest disintegrates into two nuclear parts, which have their speeds in the ratio 8:1. Ratio of their nuclear size will be
(1) :1
(2) 1:
(3) 1:2
(4) 1:1
A wire frame of a given shape, carrying current of 10 A is placed in a uniform magnetic field 100 T directed into the plane of the paper as shown in the figure. The net force acting on the frame is:
In the hydrogen atom, the electron is making .If the radius of the orbit is ,then magnetic field produced at the centre of the orbit is
1. 140 Tesla
2. 12.5 Tesla
3. 1.4 Tesla
4. 0.14 Tesla
If angle of dip shown by a dip circle at with magnetic meridian is , then the angle of dip shown by the dip circle at with magnetic meridian is
In figure shows three long straight wires P, Q and R carry currents normal to the plane of the paper. All three currents have the same magnitude. Which arrow best shows the direction of the resultant force on the wire P ?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
A moving coil galvanometer has 48 turns and area of coil is If the magnetic field is 0.2 T, then to increase the current sensitivity by 25% without changing area (A) and field (B) the number of turns should become
1. 24
2. 36
3. 60
4. 54
The area of hysteresis loop of a material is equivalent to 250 joule. When 10 kg material is magnetised by an alternating field of 50 Hz , then energy lost in one hour will be if the density of material is ?
1. J
2. erg
3. J
4. erg
The figure shows four wire loops, with edge lengths of either L or 2L. All four loops will move through a region of uniform magnetic field (directed out of the page) at the same constant velocity. Rank the four loops according to the maximum magnitude of the e.m.f. induced as they move through the field, greatest first
1.
2.
3.
4.
A short magnet is allowed to fall along the axis of a horizontal metallic ring. Starting from rest, the distance fallen by the magnet in one second may be
1. 4 m
2. 5 m
3. 6 m
4. 7 m
The electric and magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave are
(1) In phase and parallel to each other and also parallel to direction of propogation of wave
(2) In phase, parallel to each other and perpendicular to direction of propagation of wave
(3) In phase and perpendicular to each other and also perpendicular to direction of propagation of wave
(4) Out of phase, perpendicular to each other and perpendicular to direction of propagation of wave
The self inductance of a choke coil is 10 mH. When it is connected with a 10V dc source, then the loss of power is 20 watt. When it is connected with 10 volt ac source loss of power is 10 watt. The frequency of ac source will be
1. 50 Hz
2. 60 Hz
3. 80 Hz
4. 100 Hz
In the given circuit and R = 100 . Then peak value of current and phase difference between voltage and current is
(1) , voltage leads current by
(2) , voltage lags current by
(3) 2 A, voltage leads current by
(4) 2 A, voltage leads current by
In a photoelectric experiment , the wavelength of incident light changes from 4000 to 2000 . The change in stopping potential is
(1) 6.2 V
(2) 3.1 V
(3) 2.1 V
(4) 4.1 V
An -particle is accelerated through a potential difference of 100 V. Its de-Broglie's wavelength is
(1) 0.02 nm
(2) 0.04 nm
(3) 0.1 nm
(4) 0.001 nm
An object is placed at a point distance \(x\) from the focus of a convex lens and its image is formed at \(I\) as shown in the figure. The distances \(x\) and \(x'\) satisfy the relation:
1. \(\frac{x+x'}{2} = f\)
2. \(f = xx'\)
3. \(x+x' \le 2f\)
4. \(x+x' \ge 2f\)
The diameter of the eye-ball of a normal eye is about 2.5 cm. The power of the eye lens varies from:
1. 2 D to 10 D
2. 40 D to 32 D
3. 9 D to 8 D
4. 44 D to 40 D
Following figure shows sources and that emits light of wavelength in all directions. The sources are exactly in phase and are separated by a distance equal to 1.5 . If we start at the indicated start point and travel along path 1 and 2, the interference produce a maxima all along
1. Path 1
2. Path 2
3. Any path
4. None of these
An electron is moving through a field. It is moving (i) opposite an electric field (ii) perpendicular to a magnetic field as shown. For each situation the de-Broglie wave length of electron
1. Increasing, increasing
2. Increasing, decreasing
3. Decreasing, same
4. Same, Same
When key k is open in a circuit as shown in figure, an ideal voltmeter reads 1.53 V. If key is closed then ideal ammeter reads 1 A and voltmeter reads 1.03 V. Then EMF of cell and external resistance R are respectively
1.
2.
3.
4.
If the mass of a radioactive sample is doubled, the activity of the sample and the disintegration constant of the sample are respectively
1. Increases, remains the same
2. Decreases, increases
3. Decreases, remains same
4. Increases, decreases
Four point charges are placed at the corner of a square of side a as shown in the figure. A charge q is displaced first from and then from , then work done in displacing the charge
1. From is less than that from
2. From is less than that from
3. From is equal to work from and is non-zero
4. From is equal to work from and equal to zero