Consider the following statements:
I. | Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiles for reducing the emission of poisonous gases. |
II. | They convert unburnt hydrocarbons to CO2 and H2O, and CO and NO to CO2 and N2 respectively. |
III. | Vehicles equipped with catalytic converters should use leaded petrol. |
Which of the above statements are true?
1. | I and II only | 2. | I and III only |
3. | II and III only | 4. | I, II, and III |
Consider the following statements:
I: | Asexual reproduction preserves genetic information while sexual reproduction permits variations. |
II: | Traditional hybridization often leads to the inclusion and multiplication of undesirable genes along with the desired genes. |
III: | rDNA technology allows us to isolate and introduce only one or a set of desirable genes without introducing undesirable genes in the target organism. |
Which of the above statements are true?
1. | I and II only | 2. | I and III only |
3. | II and III only | 4. | I, II, and III |
Consider the following statements:
The rate of decomposition is high if:
I: | The detritus is rich in lignin and chitin. |
II: | The detritus is rich in nitrogen and sugars. |
III: | The environmental conditions are warm and moist. |
Which of the above statements are true?
1. | I and II only | 2. | I and III only |
3. | II and III only | 4. | I, II, and III |
Consider the following statements:
I: | In an aquatic ecosystem, Grazing Food Chain (GFC) is the major conduit for energy flow. |
II: | In a terrestrial ecosystem, Detritus Food Chain (DFC) is the major conduit for energy flow. |
III: | GFC and DFC are not interconnected at any level. |
Which of the above statements are true?
1. | I and II only | 2. | I and III only |
3. | II and III only | 4. | I, II, and III |
Consider the following statements:
I: | Trophic level in an ecosystem represents a functional level, not a species as such. |
II: | Saprophytes are accorded the position of a top consumer in an ecosystem. |
III: | A species can occupy more than one trophic level in the same ecosystem at the same time. |
Which of the above statements are true?
1. | I and II only | 2. | I and III only |
3. | II and III only | 4. | I, II, and III |
Consider the following statements:
I: | The atmosphere only contains about 1% of total global carbon. |
II: | Unlike the carbon cycle, there is no respiratory release of phosphorus into the atmosphere. |
III: | Sulphur and phosphorus cycles are sedimentary cycles. |
Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II, and III
Consider the following statements:
I. The extinction of stellar’s cow and passenger pigeon is attributed to over-exploitation.
II. The thylacine was the largest known carnivorous marsupial of modern times.
III. Alien species invasion has led to the extinction of many cichlid fish species in lake Victoria.
Which of the above statements are true?
1. | I and II only | 2. | I and III only |
3. | II and III only | 4. | I, II, and III |
Consider the following statements:
I. | Noise was added as an air pollutant to the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act in 1987. |
II. | Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 to control the emission of ozone-depleting substances. |
III. | The Earth Summit for the conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilization of its benefits was held in 1992. |
Which of the above statements are true?
1. | I and II only | 2. | I and III only |
3. | II and III only | 4. | I, II, and III |
Consider the following statements:
1. | The “bad” ozone is the ozone that is formed in the troposphere. |
2. | The “good ozone” in the stratosphere acts as a shield against harmful UV radiation. |
3. | UV-A radiations can cause skin cancers and snow-blindness cataracts. |
Which of the above statements are true?
1. | I and II only | 2. | I and III only |
3. | II and III only | 4. | I, II, and III |
Consider the following statements:
I. India’s share of the global species diversity is 8.1% approximately.
II. Two ecological hot spots of the world cover our bio-diversity regions.
III. The Amazon rainforest has the greatest biodiversity on Earth.
Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only 2. I and III only
3. II and III only 4. I, II, and III
Consider the following statements:
I: | When certain exotic species are introduced into a geographical area, they become invasive because the invaded land does not have its natural predators. |
II: | Competition is best defined as a process in which the fitness of one species is significantly lower in the presence of another species. |
III: | Biological control methods adopted in agricultural pest control are based on the ability of the predator to regulate the prey population. |
Which of the above statements are true?
1. | I and II only | 2. | I and III only |
3. | II and III only | 4. | I, II, and III |
Consider the following statements:
I: | Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of DNA whereas, endonucleases make cuts at specific positions within DNA. |
II: | To visualize pure DNA fragments, it is stained with ethidium bromide and seen in UV light. |
III: | Plasmids and phage DNA are used as vectors in genetic engineering as they are extrachromosomal DNA molecules. |
Which of the above statements are true?
1. | I and II only | 2. | I and III only |
3. | II and III only | 4. | I, II, and III |
Consider the following statements:
I: | Ori is responsible for the copy number of the linked DNA. |
II: | Transformation is a process through which a piece of DNA is introduced into a host bacterium. |
III: | Bacteriophages have very high copy numbers of their genome within the bacterial cell. |
Which of the above statements are true?
1. | I and II only | 2. | I and III only |
3. | II and III only | 4. | I, II, and III |
Consider the following statements:
I: | Biolistics or gene gun can be used to introduce genes in both plant and animal cells. |
II: | Agrobacterium tumefaciens does not naturally infect Monocots. |
III: | Liposomes are used in gene therapy for cystic fibrosis. |
Which of the above statements are true?
1. | I and II only | 2. | I and III only |
3. | II and III only | 4. | I, II, and III |
Consider the following statements:
I: | RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense. |
II: | It involves the silencing of a specific mRNA due to complementary dsDNA molecules that prevent the translation of mRNA. |
III: | Fire and Mello got the Nobel Prize for the discovery of RNAi. |
Which of the above statements are true?
1. | I and II only | 2. | I and III only |
3. | II and III only | 4. | I, II, and III |
Consider the following statements:
I. Humulin is the first therapeutic-recombinant product approved for human use.
II. Flavrsavr is the first GM food approved for human use.
III. Bacillus thuringiensis is the first bio-insecticide.
Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only 2. I and III only
3. II and III only 4. I, II, and III
Consider the following statements:
I. ELISA is based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction.
II. Alkaline phosphatase is a key reagent used in ELISA.
III. ELISA is a highly specific test for the diagnosis of HIV infection though it is not very sensitive.
Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only 2. I and III only
3. II and III only 4. I, II, and III
Choose incorrect option :
1. More than 70 % of world livestock population is in India and China
2. Milk yielding capacity of buffaloes is three times more as compared to cows
3. Buffalo milk is superior to cow milk with respect to fat and mineral content
4. Continuous inbreeding increases the productivity of milk
Major drawback of inbreeding is
1. Increase in homozygosity
2. Decrease in immunity
3. Reduction in fertility
4. Increase in food consumption
Project artificial insemination in cattle breeding was initiated at
1. IVRI, izzatnagar, UP
2. NDRI, Karnal
3. NDRI, Kerala
4. CDC, Lucknow
To protect and improve the quality of our environment, government of India has passed Environment (Protection) Act in the year ______
1. 1974
2. 1981
3. 1986
4. 1987
What do you mean by bioprospecting?
1. Biological analysis of living things to classify them?
2. Exploring molecular, genetic and species level diversity for product of economic importance.
3. Exploring forests to identify diversity present there.
4. It is branch of biology which deals with prospect of conservation.
Which of the following is not correct with respect of control of vehicular air pollution in India?
1. Use of CNG as fuel
2. Not phasing out of old vehicles as they have better technology
3. Use of unleaded petrol, low-sulphur petrol and diesel
4. Use of catalytic converter
Each tropic level has certain mass of living material at a particular time called
1. Standing crop
2. Standing state
3. GPP
4.NPP
Term ‘biodiversity’ was popularized by
1. Robert May
2. Edward wilson
3. Paul Ehrlich
4. C. Mobius
Choose the incorrect match regarding examples of recent extinctions.
1. Quagga - Africa
2. Steller’s Sea Cow - Russia
3. Dodo - Myanmar
4. Thylacine - Australia
Read the following statements and choose the correct option
Statement 1 : The success of mammals is largely due to their ability to maintain a constant body temperature.
Statement 2 : Majority of the animals and nearly all plants cannot maintain a constant internal environment.
1. Only statement 1 is correct.
2. Only statement 2 is correct.
3. Both statements are correct.
4. Both statements are incorrect.
Select the incorrect statement
1. Species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles.
2. The IUCN red list (2004) documents the extinction of 784 species in the last 500 years.
3. Amazon rainforest is so huge that it is called the ‘heart of the planet’
4. Extinction of Steller’s sea cow and passenger pigeon were due to their overexploitation by humans.
Detritus is
1. Dead raw material for decomposition.
2. Partially decomposed organic matter.
3. Dead remains of animals & plants.
4. Both 1 and 3
If ‘N’ is the population density at time t, then its density at time ‘t+1’ will be
1.
2.
3.
4.
Choose the incorrect match regarding population interactions.
Species A Species B
1. Ammensalism – –
2. Parasitism + –
3. Commensalism + 0
4. Mutualism + +
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(1) The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area is called sere.
(2) The natural reservoir of phosphorus is rock.
(3) Ecological pyramids do not accommodate food web.
1. Only statement (1) is correct.
2. Only statement (2) is correct.
3. All (1), (2) and (3) are correct.
4. All (1), (2) and (3) are incorrect.
In which part of the atmosphere ‘good ozone’ is found?
1. Troposphere
2. Stratosphere
3. Ionosphere
4. Exosphere
During primary succession on rocks, pioneer species are
1. Annual grasses.
2. Perennial grasses.
3. Xerophytic shrubs.
4. Lichens.
Read the following statements and choose the correct option
Statement - 1 : Food webs provide stability to food chain.
Statement - 2 : Food web operates because of taste preference for particular food and unavailability of food.
1. Only statement (2) is correct.
2. Only statement (1) is correct.
3. Both statements are correct.
4. Both statements are incorrect
Initially, how many biodiversity hot spots were identified globally?
1. 34
2. 25
3. 20
4. 30
National Forest Policy __A__ of India has recommended __B__ forest cover for the plains and __C__ for the hills. Fill the blanks with suitable A, B and C
A B C
1. 1988 33% 67%
2. 1988 30% 19.4%
3. 1989 30% 65%
4. 1987 19.4% 30%
‘Chipko Movement’ was originated in Himalayan region. At present this region is a part of ______
1. Uttar Pradesh
2. Uttarakhand
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Jammu and Kashimir
In logistic growth pattern, the influence of environmental resistances over the biotic potential is denoted by
1. rN
2.
3.
4.
Read the statements given below and choose the correct option
Statement I : Decomposition is purely an anaerobic process.
Statement II : The rate of decomposition is controlled by chemical composition of detritus and climatic factors.
1. Only statement I is correct.
2. Only statement I is incorrect.
3. Both statements I and II are correct.
4. Both statements I and II are incorrect.
Biomagnification of DDT in aquatic food chain leads to high concentration of DDT in fish eating birds. It results in
(1) Disturbance in calcium metabolism in birds.
(2) Thinning of egg shell and their premature breaking.
(3) Decline in birds population
1. (1) and (2) only
2. (2) and (3) only
3. (1) and (3) only
4. All (1), (2) and (3)
Which one is not a cause of biodiversity loss?
1. Alien species invasion.
2. Co-extinction.
3. Endemism.
4. Overexploitation.
Match the columns and select the correct option
Column-I Column-II
A. Earth Summit (i) Johannesburg
B. World summit on (ii) Broadly utilitarian
sustainable Development.
C. Biodiversity plays a (iii) Narrowly utilitarian
major role in many
ecosystem services.
D. Direct economic (iv) Rio de Janerio
benefits from nature.
1. A – (iv), B– (i), C– (ii), D– (iii)
2. A – (i), B– (iv), C– (iii), D– (ii)
3. A – (iv), B– (i), C– (iii), D– (ii)
4. A – (i), B– (iv), C– (ii), D– (iii)
Which one is not a key criteria for determining a hotspot?
1. Very high levels of species richness.
2. High degree of those species which are confined to that region and not found anywhere else.
3. Degree of threat, which is measured in terms of habitat loss.
4. No habitat loss.
Which of the following is incorrect with respect to competition?
1. Resources need not be limiting for competition to occur
2. Competitive species may evolve mechanism that promote their co-existance
3. Connell’s field experiment is an example of competitive release
4. Only closely related species can show compeitition
Parasites evolved special adaptations in accordance with their life styles. Choose odd one out with respect to these adaptations.
1. High reproductive capacity
2. Simple life cycle and complex morphological, anatomical features
3. Loss of unnecessary sense organs
4. Loss of digestive system
The last of 24 human chromosomes to be sequenced was:
1. Chromosome 1 and completed in 2003
2. Chromosome 1 and completed in 2006
3. Chromosome X and completed in 2003
4. Chromosome X and completed in 2006
The first type II restriction endonuclease whose functioning depended on a specific DNA nucleotide sequence was:
1. EcoRI
2. HindII
3. SmaI
4. BamHI
Which of the following cannot be used as a vector in rDNA technology?
1. Plasmid
2. Phage DNA
3. Bacterium
4. YAC
The following palindrome is recognized by the restriction enzyme:
1. BamHI
2. EcoRI
3. HindII
4. PstI
Which of the following does not have the ability to replicate within bacterial cells independent of the control of chromosomal DNA?
1. Plastid
2. Bacteriophages
3. BAC
4. Plasmid
Why does Bt toxin not kill Bacillus thuringiensis?
1. The bacillus keeps proteins in inclusions
2. The toxin exists in the bacillus as a pro-toxin
3. The bacillus protects its genetic material by methylation
4. The bacillus has a tough cell wall of peptidoglycan
Cotton plants can be protected from corn borer by the proteins coded by:
1. cryIAc 2. cryIIAb
3. cryIAb 4. cryIAd
RNAi, as a mechanism of cellular defense, takes place in:
1. All bacteria
2. All unicellular organisms
3. All plants only
4. All eukaryotic organisms
How were nematode-specific genes introduced in tobacco plants?
1. Using page DNA
2. Using a retrovirus
3. By gene gun
4. Using Agrobacterium tumefaciens
The first clinical gene therapy trial was given in 1990 to a 4 year girl with:
1. Alpha – 1 antitrypsin deficiency
2. Cystic fibrosis
3. Adenosine deaminase deficiency
4. Chronic myeloid leukemia
Over 95 % of all transgenic animals are:
1. Mice
2. Pigs
3. Sheep
4. Rabbits
The transgenic cow, Rosie, produced milk that:
1. Contained human beta lactalbumin
2. Interferons to treat viral infections
3. Alpha – 1 antirypsin
4. Is protein enriched
The salient features of the human genome include all except:
1. About 1.4 million SNP locations
2. Functions known for less than 50% of the discovered genes
3. The actual number of genes and the initial estimates are remarkable similar
4. More than 98% of genome does not code for proteins
Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the answer from the codes given below:
COLUMN I |
COLUMN II |
||
A |
Bioprospecting |
a |
the process of discovery and commercialization of new products based on biological resources |
B |
Biopiracy |
b |
the exploitative patenting of already widely used natural resources, such as plant varieties, by commercial entities |
C |
Bioremediation |
c |
a process that uses microorganisms or their enzymes to treat polluted sites for regaining their original condition |
D |
Biofortification |
d |
the process by which the nutritional quality of food crops is improved through agronomic practices, conventional plant breeding, or modern biotechnology |
Codes:
A B C D
1. a b c d
2. a b d c
3. b a c d
4. b a d c
Select the incorrect statement regarding inbreeding:
1. | Inbreeding helps in elimination of deleterious alleles from the population |
2. | Inbreeding is necessary to evolve a pure-line in any animal |
3. | Continued inbreeding reduces fertility and leads to inbreeding depression. |
4. | Inbreeding depression cannot be overcome by out-crossing. |
Match the following enzymes with their functions:
Column-I |
Column-II |
||
(a) |
Restriction endonuclease |
(i) |
joins the DNA fragments |
(b) |
Exonuclease |
(ii) |
extends primers on genomic DNA template |
(c) |
DNA ligase |
(iii) |
cuts DNA at a specific position |
(d) |
Tag polymerase |
(iv) |
removes nucleotides from the ends of DNA |
Select the correct option from the following:
Options: | (a) | (b) | (c) | (d) |
1. | (iii) | (i) | (iv) | (ii) |
2. | (iii) | (iv) | (i) | (ii) |
3. | (iv) | (iii) | (i) | (ii) |
4. | (ii) | (iv) | (i) | (iii) |
The two antibiotic resistance genes on vector pBR 322 are for:
1. Ampicillin and Tetracycline
2. Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol
3. Chloramphenicol and Tetracycline
4. Tetracycline and Kanamycin
The exploitation of bioresources of a nation by multinational companies without authorization from the concerned country is referred to as:
1. | Bioweapon | 2. | Biopiracy |
3. | Bioethics | 4. | Biowar |
The decline in the population of Indian native fishes due to the introduction of Clarias gariepinus in river Yamuna can be categorised as:
1. Co-extinction
2. Habitat fragmentation
3. Over exploitation
4. Alien species invasion
Which scientist experimentally proved that DNA is the sole genetic material in bacteriophage?
1. Beadle and Tatum
2. Messelson and Stahl
3. Hershey and Chase
4. Jacob and Monod
A selectable marker is used to:
1. | help in eliminating the non-transformants so that the transformants can be regenerated. |
2. | identify the gene for the desired trait in an alien organism. |
3. | select a suitable vector for transformation in a specific crop. |
4. | mark a gene on a chromosome for isolation using a restriction enzyme. |
Western Ghats have a large number of plant and animal species that are not found anywhere else. Which of the following terms will you use to notify such species?
1. | Endemic | 2. | Vulnerable |
3. | Threatened | 4. | Keystone |
Which of the following statements about ozone is correct?
1. Tropospheric ozone protects us from UV radiation
2. Stratospheric ozone is 'bad'
3. Tropospheric ozone is 'good'
4. Stratospheric ozone protects us from UV radiation
Exploration of molecular, genetic, and species level diversity for novel products of economic importance is known as:
1. Biopiracy
2. Bioenergetics
3. Bioremediation
4. Bioprospecting
Which of the following is an innovative remedy for plastic waste?
1. Burning in the absence of oxygen
2. Burying 500 m deep below the soil surface
3. Polyblend
4. Electrostatic precipitator
Between which of the following, the relationship is not an example of commensalism?
1. Orchid and the tree on which it grows
2. Cattle Egret and grazing cattle
3. Sea Anemone and Clownfish
4. Female wasp and fig species
If an agricultural field is liberally irrigated for a prolonged period of time, it is likely to face the problem of:
1. | Metal Toxicity | 2. | Alkalinity |
3. | Acidity | 4. | Salinity |
In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus, and powdery mildew was brought about by:
1. Mutation breeding
2. Biofortification
3. Tissue culture
4. Hybridization and selection
Given below are four statements pertaining to the separation of DNA fragments using gel electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect statements:
(a) | DNA is a negatively charged molecule and so it is loaded on gel towards the anode terminal. |
(b) | DNA fragments travel along the surface of the gel, whose concentration does not affect the movement of DNA. |
(c) | The smaller the DNA fragment, the greater the distance it travels through it. |
(d) | Pure DNA can be visualized directly by exposing it to UV radiation. |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. | (a), (c) and (d) | 2. | (a), (b) and (c) |
3. | (b), (c) and (d) | 4. | (a), (b) and (d) |
An enzyme catalysing the removal of nucleotides from ends of DNA is:
1. DNA ligase
2. Endonuclease
3. Exonuclease
4. Protease
In RNAi, the genes are silenced using:
1. | dsRNA | 2. | ssDNA |
3. | ssRNA | 4. | dsDNA |
What is true for individuals of same species?
1. Live in same niche
2. Live in same habitat
3. Interbreeding
4. Live in different habitat
Gause’s principle of competitive exclusion states that
1. more abundant species will exclude the less abundant species through competition.
2. competition for the same resources excludes species having different food preferences.
3. no two species can occupy the same niche indefinitely for the same limiting resources.
4. larger organisms exclude smaller ones through competition.
The biomass available for consumption by the herbivores and the decomposers is called
1. Secondary productivity
2. Standing crop
3. Gross primary productivity
4. Net primary productivity
Which one of the following statements is correct for secondary succession?
1. It begins on a bare rock
2. It occurs on a deforested site
3. It follows primary succession
4. It is similar to primary succession except that it has a relatively fast pace
Which of the following is correctly matched?
1. Stratification-Population
2. Aerenchyma-Opuntia
3. Age pyramid-Biome
4. Parthenium hysterophorus-Threat to biodiversity
Which of the following is not one of the prime health risks associated with greater UV radiation through the atmosphere due to the depletion of stratospheric ozone?
1. Reduced Immune System
2. Damage to eyes
3. Increased liver cancer
4. Increased skin cancer
Which one of the following is mismatched?
1. Fossil fuel burning - Release of
2. Nuclear power - Radioactive wastes
3. Solar energy - Green house effect
4. Biomass burning - Release of
The figure below shows three steps (A, B, C) of Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR). Select the option giving correct ‘identification together with what it represents:
1. | B - Denaturation at a temperature of about 98°C separating the two DNA strands |
2. | A - Denaturation at a temperature of about 50°C |
3. | C - Extension in the presence of heat-stable DNA polymerase |
4. | A - Annealing with two sets of primers |
Which one of the following represents a palindromic sequence in DNA?
1. 5' - GAATTC - 3'
3' - CTTAAG - 5'
2. 5' - CCAATG - 3'
3' - GAATCC - 5'
3. 5' - CATTAG - 3'
3' - GATAAC - 5'
4. 5' - GATACC - 3'
3' - CCTAAG - 5'
Which of the following is not a component of downstream processing?
1. Purification
2. Preservation
3. Expression
4. Separation
Some of the characteristics of BT cotton are
1. Medium yield, long fibre and resistance to beetle pests
2. High yield and production of toxic protein crystals which kill dipterans pests
3. High yield and resistance to bollworms
4. Long fibre and resistance to aphids
Read the following four statements (A-D) about certain mistakes in two of them
(A) The first transgenic buffalo, Rosie produced milk which was human alpha-lactal bumin enriched.
(B) Restriction enzymes are used in isolation of DNA from other macro-molecules.
(C) Downstream processing is one of the steps of rDNA technology.
(D) Disarmed pathogen vectors are also used in transfer of r-DNA into the host.
Which are the two statements having mistakes?
1. Statement (B) and (C)
2. Statement (C) and (D)
3. Statement (A) and (C)
4. Statement (A) and (B)
Which enzyme/s will be produced in a cell in which there is a nonsense mutation in the lac Y gene?
1. Lactose permease
2. Transacetylase
3. Lactose permease and transacetylase
4. β-galactosidase
Which type of amino acid is lysine ?
1. b - amino acid
2. Acidic
3. Basic
4. Neutral
(A)(B), Product (B) is:
1.
2.
3.
4. None of these
PCl5 reacts with propanone, to give:
1. gem dichloride
2. vic dichloride
3. propanal
4. propane chloride
Mark the appropriate reagent used to distinguish vicinal and geminal dihalides.:
1. | KOH (aq.) | 2. | KOH(alc.) |
3. | Zn dust | 4. | None of these |
Resorcinol and conc. H2SO4 in presence of phthalic anhydride produce a compound which is:
1. a dye
2. an antiseptic
3. an indicator
4. a detergent
An unknown alcohol is treated with the “Lucas reagent” to determine whether the alcohol is primary, secondary or tertiary. Which alcohol reacts the fastest and by what mechanism:
1. secondary alcohol by SN2
2. tertiary alcohol by SN2
3. secondary alcohol by SN1
4. tertiary alcohol by SN1
The formula of picramide is :
1.
2.
3.
4.
Choose the correct statement from the ones given below for two anilium in:
1. II is not an acceptable canonical structure because carbonium ions are less stable than ammonium ions
2. II is not an acceptable canonical structure because it is non-aromatic
3. II is not an acceptable canonical structure because the nitrogen has 10 valence electrons
4. II is an acceptable canonical structure
In the chemical reactions,
the compounds 'A' and 'B', respectively, are:
1. Nitrobenzene and chlorobenzene
2. Nitrobenzene and fluorobenzene
3. Phenol and benzene
4. Benzene diazonium chloride and fluorobenzene
In the human body, enzymes hydrolyse protein into:
1. a ketonic acid-like CH3COCOOH
2. a hydroxy acid like CH3CHOHCOOH
3. dicarboxylic acid-like HOOC—COOH
4. amino acid-like CH2NH2COOH
Enzyme trypsin converts:
1. amino acids into proteins
2. glucose into glycogens
3. starch into sugar
4. proteins into amino acids
A polymer of acrylonitrile
is called:
1. Saran
2. Orlon
3. Dacron
4. Tetron
PMMA is the polymer of.
1. methylmethacrylate
2. methylacrylate
3. methacrylate
4. ethylacrylate
Which of the following is a hallucinogenic drug?
1. Methedrine
2. Calmpose
3. LSD
4. Seconal
.
A certain dye was prepared from a plant grown on a large scale in India. Name the dye:
1. Malachite green
2. Congo red
3. Indigo
4. Turmeric
The following compound is used as:
1. an anti-inflammatory compound
2. analgesic
3. hypnotic
4. antiseptic
The presence of radical in solution can be detected by:
1. Fehling’s solution
2. Benedict’s solution
3. Schiff's reagent
4. Nessler’s reagent
The reaction
can be classified as
1. Alcohol formation reaction
2. Dehydration reaction
3. Williamson alcohol synthesis reaction
4. Williamson ether synthesis reaction
The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is
1. Ketone
2. Carboxylic acid
3. Aromatic acid
4. Schiff base
Treatment of cyclopentanone with methyl lithium gives which of the
following species?
1. Cyclopentanonyl anion
2. Cyclopentanonyl cation
3. Cyclopentanonyl radical
4. Cyclopentanonyl biradical
Which of the following is not the product of dehydration of
1.
2.
3.
4.
Caprolactam is used for the manufacture of-
1. Nylon-6
2. Polythene
3. Terylene
4. Nylon-6 6
Among the following sets of reactants which one produces anisole ?
1. CH3CHO; RMgX
2. C6H5OH; NaOH; CH3l
3. C6H5OH; neutral FeCl3
4. C6H5-CH3; CH3COCl; AlCl3
Which of the following reactions will not result in the formation of carbon-carbon bonds ?
1. Reimer-Tiemann reaction
2. Cannizaro reaction
3. Wurtz reaction
4. Friedel-Crafts acylation
Mixture of chloroxylenol and terpineol acts as:
1. Antiseptic
2. Antipyretic
3. Antibiotic
4. Analgesic
In the below reaction, the structure of "A" is:
1. | 2. | ||
3. | 4. |
What is the correct order of the carboxylic acids' strength?
I. | II. | III. |
1. | I > II > III | 2. | II > III > I |
3. | III > II > I | 4. | II > I > III |
The compound A on treatment with Na gives B, and with PCl5 gives C. B and C react together to give diethyl ether.
A, B and C are respectively:
1.
2.
3.
4.
The product formed by the reaction of an aldehyde with a primary amine is:
1. Ketone
2. Carboxylic acid
3. Aromatic acid
4. Schiff base
What is the name of the following reaction?
1. Friedel-Crafts reaction
2. Perkins reaction
3. Acetylation reaction
4. Schotten-Baumann reaction
What results from the electrolytic reduction of nitrobenzene in a highly acidic medium?
1. p-Aminophenol
2. Azoxybenzene
3. Azobenzene
4. Aniline
D(+) glucose yields an oxime with hydroxyl amine. The structure of the oxime would be:
1. | 2. | ||
3. | 4. |
Which is the monomer of Neoprene in the following?
1. | 2. | ||
3. | \(CH_2=CH-C\equiv H\) | 4. | \(CH_2=CH-C=CH_2\) |
Nylon is an example of:
1. Polysaccharide
2. Polyamide
3. Polythene
4. Polyester
The disease caused by deficiency of vitamin B1 is:
1. | Convulsions | 2. | Beri-beri |
3. | Cheilosis | 4. | Sterility |
The correct order of decreasing acid strength of
trichloroacetic acid (A), trifluoroacetic acid (B), acetic acid (C), and formic acid (D) is:
1. B > A > D > C
2. B > D > C > A
3. A > B > C > D
4. A > C > B >D
Given below is a reaction sequence: |
1. | |
2. | |
3. | |
4. |
1. Diphenylhydramine
2. Norethindrone
3. Omeprazole
4. Chloramphenicol
The example of a nucleophilic substitution reaction among the following is:
1. | |
2. | |
3. | |
4. |
The product 'Z' in the below-mentioned reaction is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
The compound on hydrolysis of 50% aqueous sodium hydroxide that produces the corresponding alcohol and acid is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Among the following, which hydrolysis reaction occurs at the slowest rate:
1. | |
2. | |
3. | |
4. |
The vapor of secondary alcohol passed over heated copper at 573 K yield:
1. | A carboxylic acid | 2. | An aldehyde |
3. | A ketone | 4. | An alkene |
Phenol on treatment with dil.HNO3 at room temperature gives:
1.
2.
3.
4.
The reaction that does not give benzoic acid as the major product is-
1.
2.
3.
4.
The focal length of the objective lens and the eye lens is 4 mm and 25 mm respectively in a compound microscope. The distance between objective and eyepiece lens is 16 cm. Find its magnifying power for relaxed eye position-
1. 32.75
2. 327.5
3. 0.3275
4. None of the above
A concave mirror is placed on a horizontal table with its axis directed vertically upwards. Let O be the pole of the mirror and C is its centre of curvature. A point object is placed at C. It has a real image, also located at C. If the mirror is now filled with water, the image will be :
1. Real, and will remain at C
2. Real, and located at a point between C and
3. Virtual and located at a point between C and O
4. Real, and located at a point between C and O
A plane mirror is placed at the bottom of the tank containing a liquid of refractive index . P is a small object at a height h above the mirror. An observer O vertically above P outside the liquid sees P and its image in the mirror. The apparent distance between these two will be-
1.
2.
3.
4.
A person can see clearly objects only when they lie between 50 cm and 400 cm from his eyes. In order to increase the maximum distance of distinct vision to infinity, the type and power of the correcting lens, the person has to use will be-
1. convex, +2.25 diopter
2. concave, - 0.25 diopter
3. concave, - 0.2 diopter
4. convex, + 0.15 diopter
A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of 100 and an output impedance of 200. The power gain of the amplifier is-
1. 500
2. 1000
3. 1250
4. 50
A boy is trying to start a fire by focusing sunlight on a piece of paper using an equiconvex lens of focal length 10 cm. The diameter of the sun is 1.39 and its mean distance from the earth is . What is the diameter of the sun's image on the paper?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Ray diverging from a point source forms a wavefront that is:
1. cylindrical.
2. spherical.
3. plane.
4. cubical.
When the angle of incidence on a material is 60°, the reflected light is completely polarized. The velocity of the refracted ray inside the material is (in ms–1)
1. 3 × 108
2.
3.
4. 0.5 × 108
Which is the correct diagram of a half-wave rectifier?
1.
2.
3.
4.
The part of a transistor which is heavily doped to produce a large number of majority carriers is-
1. Base
2. Emitter
3. Collector
4. None of these
Which of the following logic gate is a universal gate?
1. OR
2. NOT
3. AND
4. NOR
The mobility of free electrons is greater than that of free holes because
1. They carry negative charge
2. They are light
3. They mutually collide less
4. They require low energy to continue their motion
Davission and Germer experiment proved
1. Wave nature of light
2. Particle nature of light
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2
There are photons of frequency in a beam of light. In an equally energetic beam, there are photons of frequency . Then the correct relation is -
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following figure represents the variation of particle momentum and the associated de-Broglie wavelength?
1.
2.
3.
4.
The figure shows the variation of photocurrent with anode potential for a photo-sensitive surface for three different radiations. Let and be the intensities and and be the frequencies for the curves a, b and c respectively. Then-
1.
2.
3.
4.
Figure represents a graph of kinetic energy (K) of photoelectrons (in eV) and frequency (v) for a metal used as cathode in photoelectric experiment. The work function of metal is
1. 1 eV
2. 1.5 eV
3. 2 eV
4. 3 eV
Which of the following phenomena suggests the presence of electron energy levels in atoms?
1. Radio active decay
2. Isotopes
3. Spectral lines
4. -particles scattering
The ratio of the wavelengths for 2 1 transition in , and H is-
1. 1 : 2 : 3
2. 1 : 4 : 9
3. 4 : 9 : 36
4. 3 : 2 : 1
Fission of nuclei is possible because the binding energy per nucleon in them:
1. | increases with mass number at high mass numbers. |
2. | decreases with mass number at high mass numbers. |
3. | increases with mass number at low mass numbers. |
4. | decreases with mass number at low mass numbers. |
The equation represents-
1. -emission
2. -emission
3. capture
4. Fission
A hydrogen atom in its ground state absorbs 10.2 eV of energy. The orbital angular momentum is increased by- (Given Planck constant h = J-sec)
1. J-sec 2. J-sec
3. J-sec 4. J-sec
The rest mass of an electron as well as that of positron is 0.51 MeV. When an electron and positron are annihilated, they emit photon of wavelength(s)-
1. 0.012 Å
2. 0.024 Å
3. 0.012 Å to
4. 0.024 Å to
A thin prism having refracting angle \(10^\circ\) is made of glass of a refractive index \(1.42\). This prism is combined with another thin prism of glass with a refractive index \(1.7\). This combination produces dispersion without deviation. The refracting angle of the second prism should be:
1. \(6^{\circ}\)
2. \(8^{\circ}\)
3. \(10^{\circ}\)
4. \(4^{\circ}\)
Radioactive material 'A' has decay constant '8\(\lambda\)' and material 'B' has a decay constant '\(\lambda\)'. Initially, they have the same number of nuclei. After what time, the ratio of the number of nuclei of material 'A' to that of 'B' will be \(\frac{1}{e}\)?
\(1 . \frac{1}{7 \lambda}\)
\(2 . \frac{1}{8 \lambda}\)
\(3 . \frac{1}{9 \lambda}\)
\(4 . \frac{1}{\lambda}\)
Photons with energy \(5~\text{eV}\) are incident on a cathode \(C\) in a photoelectric cell. The maximum energy of emitted photoelectrons is \(2~\text{eV}\). When photons of energy \(6~\text{eV}\) are incident on \(C\), no photoelectrons will reach the anode \(A\), if the stopping potential of \(A\) relative to \(C\) is:
1. \(+3~\text{V}\)
2. \(+4~\text{V}\)
3. \(-1~\text{V}\)
4. \(-3~\text{V}\)
The photoelectric threshold wavelength of silver is \(3250\times 10^{-10}~\text{m}\). What will be the velocity of the electron ejected from a silver surface by the ultraviolet light of wavelength \(2536\times 10^{-10}~\text{m}\)? (Given \(h= 4.14\times 10^{-15}~\text{eVs}\) and \(c= 3\times 10^{8}~\text{m/s}\))
1. \(\approx 0.6\times 10^{6}~\text{m/s}\)
2. \(\approx 61\times 10^{3}~\text{m/s}\)
3. \(\approx 0.3\times 10^{6}~\text{m/s}\)
4. \(\approx 0.3\times 10^{5}~\text{m/s}\)
In the spectrum of hydrogen, the ratio of the longest wavelength in the Lyman series to the longest wavelength in the Balmer series is:
1. | \(\frac{4}{9}\) | 2. | \(\frac{9}{4}\) |
3. | \(\frac{27}{5}\) | 4. | \(\frac{5}{27}\) |
In the given figure, a diode \(D\) is connected to an external resistance \(R = 100~\Omega\) and an EMF of \(3.5~\text{V}\). If the barrier potential developed across the diode is \(0.5~\text{V}\), the current in the circuit will be:
1. \(30~\text{mA}\)
2. \(40~\text{mA}\)
3. \(20~\text{mA}\)
4. \(35~\text{mA}\)
In an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment, a straight line of length \(L\) is drawn on the inside part of the objective lens. The eye-piece forms a real image of this line. The length of this image is \(l.\) The magnification of the telescope is:
1. \(\frac{L}{l}+1\)
2. \(\frac{L}{l}-1\)
3. \(\frac{L+1}{l-1}\)
4. \(\frac{L}{l}\)
A beam of light consisting of red, green, and blue colours is incident on a right-angled prism. The refractive index of the material of the prism for the red, green, and blue wavelengths is \(1.39\), \(1.44\), and \(1.47\) respectively.
The prism will:
1. | separate the blue colour part from the red and green colour |
2. | separate all the three colours from one another |
3. | not separate the three colours at all |
4. | separate the red colour part from the green and blue colours |
The input signal given to a CE amplifier having a voltage gain of 150 is . The corresponding output signal will be:
1.
2.
3.
4.
If in a \(\mathrm{p\text{-}n}\) junction, a square input signal of \(10~\text{V}\) is applied as shown,
then the output across \(R_L\) will be:
1. | 2. | ||
3. | 4. |
A 5 W emits monochromatic light of wavelength 5000 Å. When placed 0.5 m away, it liberates photoelectrons from a photosensitive metallic surface.
When the source is moved 1.0 m away, the number of photoelectrons liberated is reduced by a factor of?
1. 4
2. 8
3.16
4. 2
A major breakthrough in the studies of cells came with the development of an electron microscope. This is because:
1. | the resolution power of the electron microscope is much higher than that of the light microscope. |
2. | the resolving power of the electron microscope is 200-350 nm compared to 0.1-0.2 nm for the light microscope. |
3. | electron beam can pass through thick materials, whereas light microscopy requires thin sections. |
4. | the electron microscope is more powerful than the light microscope as it uses a beam of electrons that has a wavelength much longer than that of photons. |
An LED is constructed from a \(\mathrm{p\text{-}n}\) junction diode using \(\mathrm{GaAsP}\). The energy gap is \(1.9~\text{eV}\). The wavelength of the light emitted will be equal to:
1. \(10.4 \times 10^{-26} \text{m}\)
2. \(654~ \text{nm}\)
3. \(654~ \text{m}\)
4. \(654\times 10^{-11}~\text{m}\)
The circuit diagram shown here corresponds to the logic gate:
1. \(\mathrm{NOR}\)
2. \(\mathrm{AND}\)
3. \(\mathrm{OR}\)
4. \(\mathrm{NAND}\)
A biconvex lens has power \(P.\) It is cut into two symmetrical halves by a plane containing the principal axis. The power of one part will be:
1. \(0\)
2. \(\frac{P}{2}\)
3. \(\frac{P}{4}\)
4. \(P\)
In Young's double-slit experiment, if there is no initial phase difference between the light from the two slits, a point on the screen corresponding to the fifth minimum has a path difference:
1. \(
\frac{5\lambda}{2}
\)
2. \(
\frac{10\lambda}{2}
\)
3. \(
\frac{9\lambda}{2}
\)
4. \(
\frac{11\lambda}{2}
\)
A double convex lens has a focal length of \(25\) cm. The radius of curvature of one of the surfaces is double of the other. What would be the radii if the refractive index of the material of the lens is \(1.5?\)
1. | \(100\) cm, \(50\) cm |
2. | \(25\) cm, \(50\) cm |
3. | \(18.75\) cm, \(37.5\) cm |
4. | \(50\) cm, \(100\) cm |
The radius of the first permitted Bohr orbit for the electron in a hydrogen atom equals \(0.5~\mathring{\text{A}}\) and its ground state energy equals \(-13.6~\text{eV}\). If the electron in the hydrogen atom is replaced by a muon \((\mu^{-})\) [charge same as electron and mass \(207~m_e\)], the first Bohr radius and ground state energy will be: ( \(m_e\) represents the mass of an electron)
1. | \(0.53\times10^{-13}~\text{m}, ~-3.6~\text{eV}\) |
2. | \(25.6\times10^{-13}~\text{m}, ~-2.8~\text{eV}\) |
3. | \(2.56\times10^{-13}~\text{m}, ~-2.8~\text{keV}\) |
4. | \(2.56\times10^{-13}~\text{m}, ~-13.6~\text{eV}\) |
The rate of radioactive disintegration at an instant for a radioactive sample of half-life 2.2 . The number of radioactive atoms in that sample at that instant is:
1. 3.7
2. 3.17
3. 3.17
4. 3.17
The angular width of the central maximum in the Fraunhofer diffraction for \(\lambda=6000~\mathrm{\mathring{A}}\) is \(\theta_0\). When the same slit is illuminated by another monochromatic light, the angular width decreases by \(30\%\). The wavelength of this light is:
1. \(1800~\mathrm{\mathring{A}}\)
2. \(4200~\mathrm{\mathring{A}}\)
3. \(420~\mathrm{\mathring{A}}\)
4. \(6000~\mathrm{\mathring{A}}\)
The work function of the photosensitive material is \(4.0~\text{eV}\). The longest wavelength of light that can cause photoelectric emission from the substance is (approximately):
1. \(3100~\text{nm}\)
2. \(966~\text{nm}\)
3. \(31~\text{nm}\)
4. \(310~\text{nm}\)
A proton and an \(\alpha\text{-}\)particle are accelerated from rest to the same energy. The de-Broglie wavelength \(\lambda_p\) and \(\lambda_\alpha\) are in the ratio:
1. \(2:1\)
2. \(1:1\)
3. \(\sqrt{2}:1\)
4. \(4:1\)