The vegetative propagule of Bryophyllum is:
1. Bulbil
2. Leaf buds
3. Rhizome
4. Offset
Water hyacinth is one of the most invasive weeds primarily because:
1. It gets adapted to any fresh water body easily
2. It produces secondary metabolites against herbivores
3. It can propagate vegetatively at a phenomenal rate
4. It is predated upon by a large number of organisms
Isogametes are seen in:
1. Cladophora
2. Fucus
3. Human beings
4. Ficus
When both male and female flowers are present on the same plant, then plant is said to be:
1. Bisexual
2. Monoecious
3. Unisexual
4. Dioecious
With respect to organisms exhibiting internal fertilization, organisms exhibiting external fertilization show:
1. More variations
2. Great synchrony between sexes
3. Large female size than males
4. Less vulnerability to predation
Pollen intine is made of:
1. Sporopollenin
2. Cellulose and pectin
3. Ergosterol
4. Phospholipids and cholesterol
Pollen grains lose their viability within 30 minutes of their release in:
1. Rose
2. Potato
3. Pea
4. Wheat
The pistil of Papaver is:
1. Monocarpellary
2. Multicarpellary apocarpous
3. Multicarpellary syncarpous
4. Absent
What does RCH stand for?
1. Reproductive and Complete Health
2. Regional and Central Healthcare
3. Reproductive and Child Healthcare
4. Reproductive and Cumulative Health
Statutory ban on amniocentesis in India was necessary because:
1. It is a very expensive
2. It can tell about chromosomal aberrations
3. It is an invasive procedure and carries high risk of abortions
4. It can be used for pre-natal sex determination to be fetus leading to female feticides
"Saheli" is a(n)
1. NGO working for female child rights
2. Mid-wife working in villages to help in child immunization
3. A national helpline number for prevention of crimes against women
4. Oral contraceptive for females
Vegetative reproduction is also a type of asexual reproduction." Which of the following statements justify this?
1. Involvement of one parent
2. Gametes are not involved
3. Does not involve meiosis
4. More than one option is correct
The pollen grain represents
1. Male gamete
2. Male gametophyte
3. Microsporophyll
4. Microsporangium
Choose the correct option with respect to the function of the germ pore.
1. It allows growth of pollen tube
2. It allows water absorption in seed
3. It helps dehiscence of pollen grain
4. More than one option is correct
The number of mitotic generations required to form a mature embryo sac from megaspore in most of the flowering plants is
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
Hydrophily is limited to 30 genera which are mostly
1. Gymnosperms
2. Monocots
3. Dicots
4. More than one option is correct
Pollen pistil interaction is
1. Chemically mediated process
2. Dynamic process
3. Genetically controlled process
4. More than one option is correct
A dioecious flowering plant prevents both
1. Autogamy and xenogamy
2. Autogamy and geitonogamy
3. Geitonogamy and xenogamy
4. Cleistogamy and xenogamy
The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to
1. Megasporangium
2. Megasporophyll
3. Megaspore mother cell
4. Megaspore
Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts a,b,c and d. Correctly identify
a | b | c | d | |
1. | Endo- thecium |
Tapetum | Micro- spore mother cell |
Middle layer |
2. | Tapetum | Endo- thecium |
Micro- spore mother cell |
Middle layer |
3. | Endo- thecium |
Middle layer |
Tapetum | Micro- spore mother cell |
4. | Endo- thecium |
Micro- spore mother cell |
Middle layer |
Tapetum |
Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of
1. Brassica
2. Citrus
3. Gossypium
4. Triticum
What is common between vegetative reproduction and Apomixis?
1. Both occur round the year
2. Both produces progeny identical to the parent
3. Both are applicable to only dicot plants
4. Both bypass the flowering phase
What would be the number of chromosomes of the aleurone cells of a plant with 42 chromosomes in its root tip cells?
1. 21
2. 42
3. 63
4. 84
In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be suitable for fertilisation?
1. Intrauterine transfer
2. Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer
3. Artificial Insemination
4. Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
What is the function of copper ions in copper releasing IUDs?
1. They increase phagocytosis of sperm within the uterus
2. They suppress sperm motility and the fertilising capacity of sperms
3. They make the uterus unsuitable for implantation
4. They inhibit ovulation
All the following statements about ZIFT are correct, but one is wrong. Which one is wrong?
1. It is zygote intra fallopian transfer
2. Zygote is transferred into the fallopian tube about after IVF
3. Early embryos upto 8 blastomeres can also be transferred into the fallopian tubes
4. Embryos with more than 8 blastomeres are also transferred into the fallopian tubes
The extra embryonic membranes of the mammalian embryo are derived from
1. Trophoblast
2. Inner cell mass
3. Formative cells
4. Follicle cells
In the 28 day human ovarian cycle, the duration of luteal phase is approximate?
1. 14 days
2. 28 days
3. 30 days
4. 5 days
Capacitation refers to changes in the
1. Sperm after fertilization
2. Sperm before fertilization
3. Ovum before fertilization
4. Ovum after fertilization
In the fertile human female, approximately on which day of the menstrual cycle (32 days) does ovulation take place?
1. Day 18
2. Day 14
3. Day 1
4. Day 8
Which of the following groups of hormones produced in women only during pregnancy ?
1. hCG, hPL, relaxin
2. Estrogen, progesterone, hCG
3. Cortisol, prolactin, thyroxine
4. Prolactin. progesterone, hCG
The stem cells which have potency to give rise to all tissues and organs are formed from
1. Trophoblast
2. Umbilical cord
3. Inner cell mass
4. Placenta
Identify the hormones that are secreted in large amount prior to ovulation :
A. LH B. FSH
C. Estrogen D. Progesterone
1. A only
2. A & B only
3. A,B & C only
4. A,B,C & D
Which one of the following statements is incorrect about menstrual cycle ?
1. The first menstruation begins at puberty and is called menarche
2. Lack of menstruation may also occur due to some environmental factors like stress, poor health
3. Corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone which is essential for maintenance of endometrium
4. In absence of fertilisation, corpus luteum degenerates in luteal phase and new follicles start developing immediately
Phase of menstrual cycle in human that lasts for 7-8 days is
1. Follicular phase
2. Ovulatory phase
3. Luteal phase
4. Menstruation
A change in ovum after penetration of sperm is
1. Formation of first polar body
2. Second meiosis starts
3. First meiosis
4. Formation of second polar body
A pollen tube liberates male gametes into
1. Degenerating synergid
2. Intact synergid
3. Antipodals
4. Egg
What functions as the embryonic root of the plant?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
The following diagram shows:
(1) Multicarpellary, syncarpus pistil of Papaver
(2) Multicarpellary, apocarpus pistil of Papaver
(3) Multicarpellary, apocarpus gynoecium of Michelia
(4) Multicarpellary, syncarpus gynoecium of Michelia
What is true about the given figure?
1. | The plant concerned is Chara, A is Oogonium and B is Antheridium |
2. | The plant concerned is Chara, B is Oogonium and A is Antheridium |
3. | The plant concerned is Marchantia, A is Oogonium and B is Antheridium |
4. | The plant concerned is Marchantia, B is Oogonium and A is Antheridium |
The functions of male sex accessory ducts and glands are maintained by:
(1) Hypothalamic releasing hormone
(2) Pituitary gonadotropins
(3) Adrenal cortex steroids
(4) Testicular androgens
At the birth of the female child, the follicles in her ovaries contain:
1. Primary oocytes that have been arrested at the S phase of the cell cycle
2. Primary oocytes that have been arrested at the Prophase I of Meiosis I
3. Secondary oocytes that have been arrested at the Prophase I of Meiosis I
4. Secondary oocytes that have been arrested at the Metaphase II of Meiosis II
What happens to the majority of the follicles during the phase from birth to puberty?
1. They get invested by multiple layers of granulosa cells
2. They enlarge in size and then get dormant
3. They undergo atresia or degeneration
4. They cluster together at one end of the ovary
Consider the two surgical procedures given below and choose the correct statement:
1. A is a more difficult procedure than B
2. The reversibility of A is good but that of B is very poor
3. A will make the male impotent and B will make the female infertile
4. Both A and B can be called as sterilization procedures
In the given diagram, identify A, B, C and D respectively:
(1) LH, FSH, Progesterone and Estrogen
(2) FSH, LH, Estrogen and Progesterone
(3) Estrogen, Progesterone, LH and FSH
(4) Progesterone, Estrogen, FSH and LH
In the given diagram the part of the female reproductive system that undergoes cyclical changes with changes in the secretion of gonadotropins and gonadal steroids during the menstrual cycle is represented by:
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
Which of the structures shown in the following diagram contributes the source of nutrition for the sperms ejaculated in the semen?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Which of the following hormones is responsible for both the milk ejection reflex and the foetal ejection reflex?
1. | Estrogen | 2. | Prolactin |
3. | Oxytocin | 4. | Relaxin |
No new follicles develop in the luteal phase of the menstrual cycle because :
1. | Follicles do not remain in the ovary after ovulation |
2. | FSH levels are high in the luteal phase |
3. | LH levels are high in the luteal phase |
4. | Both FSH and LH levels are low in the luteal phase |
Which of the following is a correct statement?
1. IUDs once inserted need not be replaced.
2. IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself.
3. IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms in the uterus.
4. IUDs suppress gametogenesis.
What type of pollination takes place in Vallisneria?
1. | Pollination occurs in submerged conditions by water. |
2. | Flowers emerge above the surface of water and pollination occurs by insects. |
3. | Flowers emerge above the water surface and pollen is carried by the wind. |
4. | Male flowers are carried by water currents to female flowers at the surface of the water. |
In which one of the following, both autogamy and geitonogamy are prevented?
1. Wheat
2. Papaya
3. Castor
4. Maize
Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of transport of sperms?
1. | Rete testis →Efferent ductules → Epididymis → vas deferens |
2. | Rete testis → Epididymis → Efferent ductules → vas deference |
3. | Rete testis → Vas deference → Efferent ductules → Epididymis |
4. | Efferent ductules →Rete testis → Vas deference →Epididymis |
Several hormones like hCG, hPL, oestrogen, progesterone are produced by
1.ovary
2. placenta
3. Fallopian tube
4. pituitary
Fertilisation in humans is practically feasible only if
1. the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary-isthmic junction of the fallopian tube
2. the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to ampullary-isthmic junction of the cervix
3. the sperms are transported into cervix within 48 hrs of release of ovum in uterus
4. the sperms are transported into vagina just after the release of ovum in fallopian tube
Which one of the following is not the function of placenta? It
1. facilitates supply of oxygen and nutrients to embryo
2. secretes oestrogen
3. facilitates removal of carbon dioxide and waste material from embryo
4. secretes oxytocin during parturition
Which one of the following statements about human sperm is correct?
1. Acrosome has a conical pointed structure used for piercing and penetrating the egg, resulting in fertilization
2. The sperm lysins in the acrosome dissolve the egg envelope facilitating fertilization
3. Acrosome serves as a sensory structure leading the sperm towards the ovum
4. Acrosome serves no particular function
An oocyte is released from the ovary under the influence of LH
1. After completing meiosis and before polar body are released
2. After completing meiosis I and before release of polar body
3. After completing meiosis
4. After completing meiosis I and after release of polar body
The phase of menstrual cycle in humans that last for 7-8 days is:
1. follicular phase
2. ovulatory phase
3. luteal phase
4. menstruation
The second maturation division of the mammalian ovum occurs
1. shortly after ovulation before the ovum makes entry into the Fallopian tube
2. after the ovum has been penetrated by a sperm
3. until the nucleus of the sperm has fused with that of the ovum
4. in the Graafian follicle following the first maturation division
Which one of the following is the correct matching of the events occurring during menstrual cycle?
|
Column I |
Column II |
|
1. |
Ovulation |
LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone |
|
2. |
Proliferative phase |
Rapid regeneration of myometrium and maturation of Graafian follicle |
|
3. |
Development of corpus luteum |
Secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone |
|
4. |
Menstruation |
|
In humans, at the end of the first meiotic division, the male germ cells differentiate into the
1. primary spermatocytes
2. secondary spermatocytes
3. spermatids
4. spermatogonia
Which of the following hormones is not a secretion product of human placenta?
1. Prolactin
2. Oestrogen
3. Progesterone
4. Human chorionic gonadotropin
If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilised, which one of the following is unlikely?
1. Oestrogen secretion further decreases.
2. Progesterone secretion rapidly declines.
3. Corpus luteum will disintegrate.
4. Primary follicle starts developing
The secretory phase in the human menstrual cycle is also called
1. Luteal phase and lasts for about 13 days.
2. Follicular phase and lasts for about 13 days.
3. Luteal phase and lasts for about 6 days.
4. Follicular phase and lasting for about 6 days.
What is the correct sequence of sperm formation?
1. Spermatid, Spermatocyte, Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa
2. Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatozoa, Spermatid
3. Spermatogonia, Spermatozoa, Spermatocyte, Spermatid
4. Spermatogonia, Spermatocyte, Spermatid, Spermatozoa
The difference between spermiogenesis and spermiation is
1. In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from sertoli cells are released into the cavity of seminiferous tubules, while in spermination spermatozoa are formed.
2. In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatids are formed.
3. In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are formed
4. In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa are released from sertoli cells into the cavity of seminiferous tuhulels
Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy?
1. No sperm occurs in seminal fluid
2. No sperm occurs in epididymis
3. Vasa deferentia is cut and tied
4. Irreversible sterility
Consider the statements given below regarding contraception and answer as directed thereafter
A. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during first trimester is generally safe
B. Generally, chances of conception are nil until mother breast-feeds the infants up to two years
C. Intrauterine devices like copper-T are effective contraceptives
D. Contraception pills may be taken up to one week after coitus to prevent conception
Which two of the above statements are correct?
1. B, C
2. C, D
3. A, C
4. A, B
Contraceptive oral pills help in birth control by
1. killing the sperms in uterus
2. preventing implantation
3. preventing ovulation
4. both 2. and 3.
The technique called gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT) is recommended for those females
1. Who cannot provide a suitable environment for fertilisation.
2. Who cannot produce an ovum.
3. Who cannot retain the fetus inside the uterus.
4. Whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow passage for the sperms
Meiosis occurs in
1. Megaspore
2. Meiocyte
3. Conidia
4. Gemmule
Which one of the following is wrong about Chara?
1. Globule and nucule present on the same plant
2. Upper antheridium and lower oogonium
3. Globule is male reproductive structure
4. Upper oogonium and lower round antheridium
Which one of the following shows isogamy with nonflagellated gametes?
1. Ectocarpus
2. Ulothrix
3. Spirogyra
4. Sargassum
In which set of organisms does external fertilization occur
1. Echinodermata and mosses
2. Hemichordata and ferns
3. Amphibians and algae
4. Reptiles and gymnosperms
Gemmule formation is a common mode of asexual reproduction in
1. Paramecium
2. Hydra
3. Sponges
4. Yeast
Endosperm is consumed by developing embryo in the seed of
1. Coconut
2. Pea
3. Maize
4. Castor
Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species
1. Citrus
2. Gossypium
3. Triticum
4. Brassica
In which one of the following pollination is autogamous
1. Geitonogamy
2. Xenogamy
3. Chasmogamy
4. Cleistogamy
The gynoecium consists of many free pistils in flowers of
1. Aloe
2. Tomato
3. Papaver
4. Michelia
Advantage of cleistogamy is :
1. More vigorous offspring
2. No dependence of pollinators
3. Vivipary
4. Higher genetic variability
The hilum is a scar on the:
1. Fruit, where it was attached to the pedicel
2. Fruit, where style was present
3. Seed, where micropyle was present
4. Seed, where funicle was attached
Which one of the following may require pollinators, but is genetically similar to autogamy?
1. Xenogamy
2. Apogamy
3. Cleistogamy
4. Geitonogamy
Which one of the following fruits is parthenocarpic?
1. Apple
2. Jackfruit
3. Banana
4. Brinjal
In angiosperms, microsporogenesis and megasporogenesis:
1. form gametes without further divisions
2. Involve meiosis
3. occur in ovule
4. occur in anther
Proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the:
1. Thalamus or petal
2. Anther
3. Connective
4. Placenta
Which of the following statements is not correct?
1. Some reptiles have also been reported as pollinators in some plant species. ,
2. Pollen grains of many species can germinate on the stigma of a flower, but only one pollen tube of the same
species grows into the style.
3. Insects that consume pollen or nectar without bringing about pollination are called pollen/ nectar robbers.
4. Pollen germination and pollen tube growth are regulated by chemical components of pollen interacting with
those of the pistil
The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to
1. megaspore
2. megasporangium
3. megasporophyll
4. megaspore mother cell
A dioecious flowering plant prevents both:
1. Autogamy and xenogamy
2. Autogamy and geitonogamy
3. Geitonogamy and xenogamy
4. Cleistogamy and xenogamy
Attractants and rewards are required for:
1. Anemophily
2. Entomophily
3. Hydrophily
4. Cleistogamy
The phenomenon in which polar crystals on heating produce electricity is called:-
1. Pyro-electricity.
2. Piezo-electricity.
3. Ferro-electricity.
4. Ferri-electricity.
Lithium borohydride (LiBH4), crystallizes in an orthorhombic system with 4 molecules per unit cell. The unit cell dimensions are:- a = 6.81 Å , b = 4.43 Å, c = 7.17 Å. If the molar mass of LiBH4 is 21.76 g mol-1, then the density of the crystal is:-
1. 0.67 g cm-3
2. 0.58 g cm-3
3. 1.23 g cm-3
4. None of the above.
The arrangement ABC ABC.. is referred to as.
1. octahedral close packing
2. hexagonal clase packing
3. tetrahedral close packing
4. cubic close packing
The density of KCl is 1.9893 g cm-3 and the length of a side unit cell is 6.29082 Å as determined by X-ray diffraction. The value of Avogadro’s number
calculated from this data is:-
1. 6.017 x 1023
2. 6.023 x 1022
3. 7.03 x 1023
4. 6.01 x 1019
pH of a 0.1 (M) monobasic acid is 2. Osmotic pressure at a given temperature T is-
1. 0.1RT
2. 0.11RT
3. 1.1RT
4. 0.01RT
The vapour pressure of toluene is 59.1 torr at 313.75 K and 298.7 torr at 353.15 K. Calculate, the molar heat of vaporisation.
1. 37888 J mol-1
2. 27188 J mol-1
3. 12834 J mol-1
4. 571328 J mol-1
If an iron rod is dipped in CuSO4 solution, then:
1. Blue colour of the solution turns red.
2. Brown layer is deposited on iron rod.
3. No change occurs in the colour of the solution.
4. None of the above.
Passage of three faradays of charge through an aqueous solution of AgNO3, CuSO4, Al(NO3)3, and NaCl will deposit moles of metals at the cathode in the molar ratio of:
1. | 1 : 2 : 3 : 1 | 2. | 6 : 3 : 2 : 6 |
3. | 6 : 3 : 0 : 0 | 4. | 3 : 2 : 1 : 0 |
In the Arrhenius equation K = Ae-Ea/RT, the quantity e-Ea/kT is referred as:
1. Boltzmann factor.
2. Frequency factor.
3. Activation factor.
4. None of the above.
For a given reaction, the presence of a catalyst reduces the energy of activation by 2 kcal at 27 oC. The rate of reaction will be increased by:
1. 20 times
2. 14 times
3. 28 times
4. 2 times
The mole(s) of K2SO4 to be dissolved in 12 moles of water to lower its vapor pressure by 10 mm of Hg at a temperature at which vapor pressure of pure water is 50 mm of Hg is :
1. | 3 mol | 2. | 0.5 mol |
3. | 1 mol | 4. | 2 mol |
The
salt that possesses the highest freezing point
1. 0.01 M NaCl
2. 0.05 M Urea
3. 0.01 M MgCl2
4. 0.02 M NaCl
The appearance of color in solid alkali metal halides is generally due to:-
1. Frenkel Defect
2. Interstitial Defect
3. F-Centres
4. Schottky Defect
The relative lowering of vapour caused by dissolving 71.3 g of a substance in 1000 g of water is 7.13 x 10-3. The molecular
mass of the substance is-
1. 180 g mol-1
2. 18 g mol-1
3. 1.8 g mol-1
4. 360 g mol-1
Ice crystallizes in a hexagonal lattice having the volume of the unit cell as . If the density is 0.92 g/cm3 at a given temperature,
then the number of H2O molecules per unit cell is :
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
If partial pressure of oxygen is 0.5 atm and KH = 1.4 × 10-3 M/atm, then the amount of oxygen dissolved in 100 ml water at 298K is-
1. | 22.4 mg | 2. | 22.4 g |
3. | 2.24 g | 4. | 2.24 mg |
At 298 K the Emf
of the following cell is:-
\(\small{Pt|H_{2}(1 \ atm)|H^{+}(0.02 \ M) \ || \ H^{+}(0.01 \ M)|H_{2}(1 \ atm)|Pt}\)
1. - 0.017 V
2. 0.0295 V
3. 0.1 V
4. 0.059 V
The maximum work which can be obtained from a Daniel cell \(Zn_{(s)}\ |\ Zn^{+2}_{(aq)}\ || Cu^{+2}_{(aq)}\ |\ Cu_{(s)}\) is:
\(E^o_{Zn^{2+}/Zn}\) | −0.76 V |
\(E^o_{Cu^{2+}/Cu}\) | 0.34 V |
1. 106.15 kJ
2. -212.3 kJ
3. 424.6 kJ
4. +212.3 kJ
The quantity of electricity required to reduce 12.3 g of nitrobenzene to aniline with 50 % current efficiency is:
1. 1 F
2. 0.6 F
3. 0.5 F
4. 1.2 F
The rate constant for a chemical reaction that takes place at 500 K is expressed as K = A e-1000. The activation energy of the reaction will be:
1. 100 cal/mol
2. 1000 kcal/mol
3. 104 kcal/mol
4. 106 kcal/mol
During electrolysis of conc. H2SO4, perdisulphuric acid (H2S2O8), and O2 form in equimolar amount. The amount of H2 that will form simultaneously will be :
1. Thrice that of O2 in moles.
2. Twice that of O2 in moles.
3. Equal to that of O2 in moles.
4. Half of that of O2 in moles.
For the reaction The rate is given of
Rate= what percentage of R-X Reaction by mechanism when
1. 96.1%
2. 3.9%
3. 80%
4. 20%
A catalyst lowers the activation energy of a reaction from 20 kJ mol–1 to 10 kJ mol-1. The temperature at which the uncatalysed reaction will have the same rate as that of the catalysed at 27 oC will be:
1. \(-123\ ^{\circ}C\)
2. \(-327\ ^{\circ}C\)
3. \(327\ ^{\circ}C\)
4. \(23\ ^{\circ}C\)
What is the percentage of the reactant molecules crossing over the energy barrier at 325 K?
Given that
1. | 80.62 % | 2. | 85.23 % |
3. | 89.27 % | 4. | None of the above |
Iron exhibits bcc structure at room temperature. Above 900 °C, it transforms to fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at room temperature to that at 900 °C is:
(Molar mass and
atomic radii of iron remain constant with temperature)
1.
2.
3.
4.
The correct statement regarding defects in a crystalline solid is:
1. | Schottky defects have no effect on the density of crystalline solids. |
2. | Frenkel defects decrease the density of crystalline solids. |
3. | Frenkel defect is a dislocation defect. |
4. | Frenkel defect is found in halides of alkaline metals. |
The electrolyte having the same value of Van't Hoff factor (i) as that of Al2(SO4)3 (if all are 100% ionized) is:
1. K2SO4
2. K3[Fe(CN)6]
3. Al(NO3)3
4. K4[Fe(CN)6]
If half-cell potentials are-
Zn2+(aq) + 2e–→ Zn(s) | Eo = – 0.76 V |
Ag2O(s) + H2O(l) + 2e– → 2Ag(s) + 2OH–(aq) | Eo = 0.34 V |
The cell potential will be:
1. | 0.42 V | 2. | 0.84 V |
3. | 1.34 V | 4. | 1.10 V |
The incorrect statement regarding the order of reaction is:
1. | Order is not influenced by the stoichiometric coefficient of the reactants. |
2. | Order of reaction is the sum of power to the concentration terms of reactants to express the rate of reaction. |
3. | The order of reaction is always a whole number. |
4. | Order can be determined by experiments only. |
For the reaction,
the value of rate of disappearance of N2O5 is given as 6.25 x 10-3mol L-1s-1.The rate of formation of NO2 and O2 is given respectively as:
1. | 6.25 × 10-3 mol L-1s-1 and 6.25 × 10-3 mol L-1s-1. |
2. | 1.25 × 10-2 mol L-1s-1 and 3.125 × 10-3 mol L-1s-1. |
3. | 6.25 × 10-3 mol L-1s-1 and 3.125 × 10-3 mol L-1s-1. |
4. | 1.25 × 10-2 mol L-1s-1 and 6.25 × 10-3 mol L-1s-1. |
A solution of sucrose (molar mass = 342 g mol-1 ) has been prepared by dissolving 68.5 g of sucrose in 1000 g of water. The freezing point of the solution obtained will be:
(kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol-1)
1. -0.372 oC
2. -0.520 oC
3. +0.372 oC
4. -0.570 oC
Given:
(i) Eo = 0.337 V
(ii) Eo = 0.153 V
Electrode potential, Eo for the reaction,
, will be:
1. 0.52 V
2. 0.90 V
3. 0.30 V
4. 0.38 V
For the reaction, \(\mathrm{N}_2+3 \mathrm{H}_2 \rightarrow 2 \mathrm{NH}_3,\) if, \(\frac{d[NH_{3}]}{dt} \ = \ 2\times 10^{-4} \ mol \ L^{-1} \ s^{-1}\), the value of \(\frac{-d[H_{2}]}{dt}\) would be:
1. | \(3 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{~mol} \mathrm{~L}^{-1} \mathrm{~s}^{-1} \) | 2. | \(4 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{~mol} \mathrm{~L}^{-1} \mathrm{~s}^{-1} \) |
3. | \(6 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{~mol} \mathrm{~L}^{-1} \mathrm{~s}^{-1} \) | 4. | \(1 \times 10^{-4} \mathrm{~mol} \mathrm{~L}^{-1} \mathrm{~s}^{-1}\) |
1. 1.968 V
2. 2.0968 V
3. 1.0968 V
4. 0.0968 V
If 60% of a first-order reaction was completed in 60 min, 50% of the same reaction would be completed in approximately:
(log 4 = 0.60, log 5 = 0.69)
1. | 50 min | 2. | 45 min |
3. | 60 min | 4. | 40 min |
1. | 17.6 mg | 2. | 21.3 mg |
3. | 24.3 mg | 4. | 13.6 mg |
A solution containing 10 g/dm3 of urea (molecular mass = 60 g mol-1) is isotonic with a 5 % solution of a non-volatile solute. The molecular mass of this non-volatile solute is:
1. | 25 g mol-1 | 2. | 300 g mol-1 |
3. | 350 g mol-1 | 4. | 200 g mol-1 |
For the reaction, \(2 A+B \rightarrow 3 C+D\)
An incorrect expression for the rate of reaction is:
1. | \(-\frac{d[C]}{3} d t \) | 2. | \(-\frac{d[B]}{d t} \) |
3. | \(\frac{d[D]}{d t} \) | 4. | \(-\frac{d[A]}{2 d t}\) |
1.00 g of non-electrolyte solute (molar mass 250 g mol-1) was dissolved in 51.2 g of benzene. If the freezing point depression constant, Kf of benzene is 5.12 mol-1 kg K, the freezing point of benzene will be lowered by:
1. 0.4 K
2. 0.3 K
3. 0.5 K
4. 0.2 K
During osmosis, the flow of water through a semi-permeable membrane is:
1. | From a solution having higher concentration only. |
2. | From both sides of the semi-permeable membrane with equal flow rates. |
3. | From both sides of the semi-permeable membrane with unequal flow rates. |
4. | From a solution having lower concentration only. |
A compound is formed by cation C and anion A. The anions form hexagonal close packed (hcp) lattice and the cations occupy 75 % of octahedral voids. The formula of the compound is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Limiting molar conductivities, for the given solutions, are :
From the data given above, it can be concluded that \(\lambda_m^0 \) in (\(S\ cm^2\ mol^{-1}\)) for CH3COOH will be :
1. | \(\mathrm{x-y+2z}\) | 2. | \(\mathrm{x+y+z}\) |
3. | \(\mathrm{x-y+z}\) | 4. | \(\mathrm{{(x-y) \over 2}+z}\) |
The formula of nickel oxide with metal deficiency defect in its crystal is . The crystal contains ions. The fraction of nickel existing as ions in the crystal is-
1. 0.96
2. 0.04
3. 0.50
4. 0.31
The colour sequence in a carbon resistor is red, brown, orange and silver. The resistance of the resistor is
1. 21 × 103 ± 10%
2. 23 × 101 ± 10
3. 21 × 103 ± 5%
4. 12 × 103 ± 5%
In a potentiometer experiment, the balancing with a cell is at length 240 cm. On shunting the cell with a resistance of 2 Ω, the balancing length becomes 120 cm. The internal resistance of the cell is :
1. 4 Ω
2. 2 Ω
3. 1 Ω
4. 0.5 Ω
In the circuit shown in the figure, the current through :
1. The 3Ω resistor is 0.50A
2. The 3Ω resistor is 0.25 A
3. The 4Ω resistor is 0.50A
4. The 4Ω resistor is 0.25 A
A group of N cells whose emf varies directly with the internal resistance as per the equation EN = 1.5 rN are connected as shown in the figure below. The current I in the circuit is
1. 0.51 A
2. 5.1 A
3. 0.15 A
4. 1.5 A
In the adjoining circuit diagram each resistance is of 10 Ω. The current in the arm AD will be
1.
2.
3.
4.
The reading of the ideal voltmeter in the adjoining diagram will be :
1. 4 V
2. 8 V
3. 12 V
4. 14 V
V-i graphs for parallel and series combination of two identical resistors are as shown in the figure. Which graph represents a parallel combination ?
1. A
2. B
3. A and B both
4. Neither A nor B
q1, q2, q3 and q4 are point charges located at points as shown in the figure and S is a spherical Gaussian surface of radius R. Which of the following is true according to the Gauss’s law ?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Four charges equal to – Q are placed at the four corners of a square and a charge q is at its centre. If the system is in equilibrium the value of q is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Two concentric conducting thin spherical shells A and B having radii rA and rB (rB > rA) are charged to QA and . The electrical field at distance x from the common center is -
1.
2.
3.
4.
Across a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross-section, a constant potential difference is applied. The quantity which remains constant along the conductor is :
1. current density
2. current
3. drift velocity
4. electric field
See the electrical circuit shown in this figure. Which of the following equation is a correct equation for it?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Two capacitors A and B are connected in series with a battery as shown in the figure. When the switch S is closed and the two capacitors get charged fully, then
1. The potential difference across the plates of A is 4V and across the plates of B is 6V
2. The potential difference across the plates of A is 6V and across the plates of B is 4V
3. The ratio of electrical energies stored in A and B is 2 : 3
4. The ratio of charges on A and B is 3 : 2
During charging a capacitor, the variation of potential V of the capacitor with time t is shown as :
1.
2.
3.
4.
The figure shows a charge q placed inside a cavity in an uncharged conductor. Now if an external electric field is switched on –
1. only induced charge on the outer surface will redistribute
2. only induced charge on the inner surface will redistribute
3. both induced charge on the outer and inner surface will redistribute
4. force on charge q placed inside the cavity will change
In the figure, two conducting concentric spherical shells are shown.
If the electric potential at the centre is 20V and the electric potential at the surface of outer shell is 5V, then the potential at the surface of inner shell is –
1. 5V
2. 15V
3. 20V
3. cannot be determined as radii are not given
Infinite charges, each of q coulomb are lying on the x-axis at x = 1m, 2m, 4m, 8m, --------.The electric potential due to these charges at x = 0 will be –
1.
2.
3.
4.
A ball of mass and charge moves from a point whose potential is to a point whose potential is zero. If the speed of the ball at is , its speed at point will be:
1. | 0.6 m / s | 2. | 6 m / s |
3. | 2 m / s | 4. | 4 m / s |
Three uncharged capacitors of capacities \(C_1, C_2~\text{and}~C_3~~\) are connected to one another as shown in the figure.
If points \(\mathrm{A}\), \(\mathrm{B}\), and \(\mathrm{D}\), are at potential \(V_1, V_2 ~\text{and}~V_3\) then the potential at \(\mathrm{O}\) will be:
1. \(\frac{V_1C_1+V_2C_2+V_3C_3}{C_1+C_2+C_3}\)
2. \(\frac{V_1+V_2+V_3}{C_1+C_2+C_3}\)
3. \(\frac{V_1(V_2+V_3)}{C_1(C_2+C_3)}\)
4. \(\frac{V_1V_2V_3}{C_1C_2C_3}\)
The diagrams below show regions of equipotential.
A positive charge is moved from \(\mathrm{A}\) to \(\mathrm{B}\) in each diagram. Choose the correct statement from the options given below:
1. | in all four cases, the work done is the same. |
2. | minimum work is required to move \(q\) in figure (a). |
3. | maximum work is required to move \(q\) in figure (b). |
4. | maximum work is required to move \(q\) in figure (c). |
An electric dipole is placed at an angle of \(30^\circ\) with an electric field intensity \(2\times10^5~ \text{N/C}\). It experiences a torque equal to \(4 ~\text{N-m}\). The charge on the dipole, if the dipole length is \(2~ \text{cm}\), is:
1. | \(8~\text{mC}\) | 2. | \(2~\text{mC}\) |
3. | \(5~\text{mC}\) | 4. | \(7~\mu \text{C}\) |
A parallel-plate capacitor of area \(A\), plate separation \(d\) and capacitance \(C\) is filled with four dielectric materials having dielectric constants \(k_1, k_2,k_3\) and \(k_4\) as shown in the figure below. If a single dielectric material is to be used to have the same capacitance \(C\) in this capacitor, then its dielectric constant \(k\) is given by:
1. \( {k}={k}_1+{k}_2+{k}_3+3 {k}_4\)
2. \({k}=\frac{2}{3}\left({k}_1+{k}_2+{k}_3\right)+2 {k}_4\)
3. \({k}=\frac{2}{3} {k}_4\left(\frac{{k}_1}{{k}_1+{K}_4}+\frac{{k}_2}{{k}_2+{k}_4}+\frac{{k}_3}{{k}_3+{k}_4}\right)\)
4. \(\frac{1}{{k}}=\frac{1}{{k}_1}+\frac{1}{{k}_2}+\frac{1}{{k}_3}+\frac{3}{2 {k}_4}\)
The potential difference \(V_\mathrm{A}-V_\mathrm{B}\) between the points \(\mathrm{A}\) and \(\mathrm{B}\) in the given figure is:
1. | \(-3~\text{V}\) | 2. | \(+3~\text{V}\) |
3. | \(+6~\text{V}\) | 4. | \(+9~\text{V}\) |
A filament bulb (\(500\) W, \(100\) V) is to be used in a \(230\) V main supply. When a resistance\(R\) is connected in series, the bulb works perfectly and consumes \(500\) W. The value of \(R\) is:
1. | \(230\) | 2. | \(46\) |
3. | \(26\) | 4. | \(13\) |
An electron falls from rest through a vertical distance \(h\) in a uniform and vertically upward-directed electric field \(E\). The direction of the electric field is now reversed, keeping its magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to fall from rest through the same vertical distance \(h\). The fall time of the electron in comparison to the fall time of the proton is:
1. | smaller | 2. | \(5\) times greater |
3. | \(10\) times greater | 4. | equal |
If potential \([\text{in volts}]\) in a region is expressed as \(V[x,y,z] = 6xy-y+2yz,\) the electric field \([\text{in N/C}]\) at point \((1, 1, 0)\) is:
1. | \(- \left(3 \hat{i} + 5 \hat{j} + 3 \hat{k}\right)\) | 2. | \(- \left(6 \hat{i} + 5 \hat{j} + 2 \hat{k}\right)\) |
3. | \(- \left(2 \hat{i} + 3 \hat{j} + \hat{k}\right)\) | 4. | \(- \left(6 \hat{i} + 9 \hat{j} + \hat{k}\right)\) |
A parallel plate air capacitor has capacitance \(C,\) the distance of separation between plates is \(d\) and potential difference \(V\) is applied between the plates. The force of attraction between the plates of the parallel plate air capacitor is:
1. | \(\frac{C^2V^2}{2d}\) | 2. | \(\frac{CV^2}{2d}\) |
3. | \(\frac{CV^2}{d}\) | 4. | \(\frac{C^2V^2}{2d^2}\) |
Two thin dielectric slabs of dielectric constants \(K_1\) and \(K_2\) \((K_1<K_2)\) are inserted between plates of a parallel plate capacitor, as shown in the figure. The variation of electric field \('E'\) between the plates with distance \('d'\) as measured from the plate \(P\) is correctly shown by:
1. | 2. | ||
3. | 4. |
Three concentric spherical shells have radii a, b, and c (a<b<c) and have surface charge densities , and respectively. If , and denote the potential of the three shells, and c=a+b, it can be concluded that:
1. | \(\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{C}}=\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{A}} \neq \mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{B}}\) |
2. | \(\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{C}}=\mathrm{V}_B \neq \mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{A}}\) |
3. | \(\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{C}} \neq \mathrm{V}_B \neq \mathrm{V}_A\) |
4. | \(\mathrm{V}_{\mathrm{C}}=\mathrm{V}_B=\mathrm{V}_A\) |
A wire of resistance \(12~ \Omega \text{m}^{-1}\) is bent to form a complete circle of radius \(10~\text{cm}\). The resistance between its two diametrically opposite points, \(A\) and \(B\) as shown in the figure, is:
1. \(0.6\pi~\Omega\)
2. \(3\pi ~\Omega\)
3. \(61 \pi~ \Omega\)
4. \(6\pi~\Omega\)
A current of \(3~\text{A}\) flows through the \(2~\Omega\) resistor shown in the circuit. The power dissipated in the \(5~\Omega\) resistor is:
1. | \(4~\text{W}\) | 2. | \(2~\text{W}\) |
3. | \(1~\text{W}\) | 4. | \(5~\text{W}\) |
A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within it (at the geometrical centre). If ϕ is the electric flux in units of Volt-meter associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A in units of volt-meter will be:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Charges +q and –q are placed at points A and B, respectively; which are at a distance 2L apart. C is the midpoint between A and B. The work done in moving a charge +Q along the semicircle CRD is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
An electric dipole of moment \(\vec {p} \) is lying along a uniform electric field \(\vec{E}\). The work done in rotating the dipole by \(90^{\circ}\) is:
1. \(\sqrt{2}pE\)
2. \(\frac{pE}{2}\)
3. \(2pE\)
4. \(pE\)
A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a potential difference of V volts. After disconnecting the charging battery, the distance between the plates of the capacitor is increased using an insulating handle. As a result the potential difference between the plates:
1. decreases.
2. does not change.
3. becomes zero.
4. increases.
A hollow metal sphere of radius \(R\) is uniformly charged. The electric field due to the sphere at a distance \(r\) from the centre:
1. | decreases as \(r\) increases for \(r<R\) and for \(r>R\). |
2. | increases as \(r\) increases for \(r<R\) and for \(r>R\). |
3. | zero as \(r\) increases for \(r<R\), decreases as \(r\) increases for \(r>R\). |
4. | zero as \(r\) increases for \(r<R\), increases as \(r\) increases for \(r>R\). |
The reading of an ideal voltmeter in the circuit shown is:
1. | \(0.6\) V | 2. | \(0\) |
3. | \(0.5\) V | 4. | \(0.4\) V |
The metre bridge shown is in a balanced position with \(\frac{P}{Q} = \frac{l_1}{l_2}\). If we now interchange the position of the galvanometer and the cell, will the bridge work? If yes, what will be the balanced condition?
1. Yes, \(\frac{P}{Q}=\frac{l_1-l_2}{l_1+l_2}\)
2. No, no null point
3. Yes, \(\frac{P}{Q}= \frac{l_2}{l_1}\)
4. Yes, \(\frac{P}{Q}= \frac{l_1}{l_2}\)
A sphere encloses an electric dipole with charges \(\pm3\times10^{-6}\) C. What is the total electric flux through the sphere?
1. \(-3\times10^{-6}\) N-m2/C
2. zero
3. \(3\times10^{-6}\) N-m2/C
4. \(6\times10^{-6}\) N-m2/C
Two identical capacitors \(C_{1}\) and \(C_{2}\) of equal capacitance are connected as shown in the circuit. Terminals \(a\) and \(b\) of the key \(k\) are connected to charge capacitor \(C_{1}\) using a battery of emf \(V\) volt. Now disconnecting \(a\) and \(b\) terminals, terminals \(b\) and \(c\) are connected. Due to this, what will be the percentage loss of energy?
1. \(75\%\)
2. \(0\%\)
3. \(50\%\)
4. \(25\%\)