AIIMS 2014

A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section 1.5 × 10^–4 m² carries a current of 2.0 A. It is suspended through its centre and perpendicular to its length, allowing it to turn in a horizontal plane in a uniform magnetic field 1.5 × 10^–2 T , making an angle of 30° with the axis of the solenoid. The torque on the solenoid will be?
1.  3 × 10^–3 N-m
2.  4.5 × 10^–3 N-m
3.  1.5 × 10^–2 N-m
4.  3 × 10^–2 N-m

A freshly prepared radioactive source of half-life 2 h emits radiation of intensity which is 64 times the permissible safe level. Calculate, the minimum time after which it would be possible to work safely with this source.

1.  12 h
2.  24 h
3.  6 h
4.  130 h

A ball is dropped from a high rise platform t = 0 starting from rest. After 6 s another ball is thrown downwards from the same platform with a speed v . The two balls meet at t = 18 s. What is the value of v?

1.  74 m/s
2.  64 m/s
3.  84 m/s
4.  94 m/s

The thermo emf E (in volts) of a certain thermocouple is found to vary with Q (in C) according to equation

where Q is temperature of the hot function being kept at 0 °C. Then, the neutral temperature of the thermocouple is

1.  300 ° C
2.  400 ° C
3.  100 ° C
4.  200 ° C

The maximum vertical distance through which is fully dressed astronaut can jump on the earth is 0.5 m. Estimate the maximum vertical distance through which he can jump on the moon, which has a mean density 2/3 rd that of the earth and radius one quarter that of the earth.

1.  1.5 m
2.  3 m
3.  6 m
4.  7.5 m

As shown in figure a simple harmonic motion oscillator having identical four springs has time period

If there were a reduction in gravitational effect, which of the following forces do you think would change in some respect?

1.  Magnetic force
2.  Electrostatic force
3.  Viscous force
4.  Archimedes's uplift

Two batteries of emf 4 v and 8 V with internal resistance 1Ω and 2Ω respectively are connected to an external resistance R = 9Ω as shown in figure. The current in circuit and the potential difference between P and Q respectively will be

The correct graph respectively the relation between energy (E) of photoelectrons and frequency v of incident light is
1.

10.

A body at a temperature of 728 ° C and has surface area 5 cm², radiates 300 J of energy each minute. The emissivity is
(given Boltzmann constant

)

1.  e = 0.18
2.  e = 0.02
3.  e = 0.2
4.  e = 0.15

11.

Considering normal incidence of ray, the equivalent refractive index of combination of two slabs shown in figure is

1.  1.8
2.  1.43
3.  2
4.  None of the above

12.

Three particles having charges in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5 produce the same point on the photographic film in Thomson experiment. Their masses are in the ratio of

1.  2 : 3 : 5
2.  5 : 3 : 2
3.  15 : 10 : 6
4.  3 : 5 : 2

13.

What will be ratio of speed in first two seconds to the speed in next 4 s?

2. 3 : 1
3. 2 : 1
4. 1: 2

14.

A black body emits heat at the rate of 20 W. When its temperature is 727 ° C. Another black body emits heat at the rate of 15W, when its temperature is 227 º C. Compare the area of the surface of the two bodies, if the surrounding is at NTP.

1.  16 : 1
2.  1 : 4
3.  12 : 1
4.  1 : 12

15.

The pressure on a square plate is measured by measuring the force on the plate and the length of the sides of the plate by using the formula $P = \frac{F}{l^{2}}$ . If the maximum errors in the measurement of force and length are 4% and 2% respectively, then the maximum error in the measurement of pressure is

1.  1%
2.  2%
3.  8%
4.  10%

16.

The transfer ratio β of a transistor is 50. The input resistance of the transistor, when used in the common emitter mode is 1kΩ. The peak value of the collector alternating current for an input peak voltage of 0.01 V is
1.

17.

Four resistance

are connected so that they form the side of a rectangle AB, BC, CD and DA respectively. Another resistance of

is connected across the diagonal AC. The equivalent resistance between A and B is
1.  2Ω
2.  5Ω
3.  7Ω
4.  10Ω

18.

The velocity of a particle moving in the x – y plane is given by

and

Where, t = 0, x = 8 and y = 0, the path of the particle is

1.  A straight line
2.  an ellipse
3.  a circle
4.  a parabola

19.

A rod of length L is hinged from one end. It is brought to a horizontal position and released. The angular velocity of the rod, when it is in vertical position is

1.

20.

A weight w is suspended from the midpoint of a rope, whose ends are at the same level. In other to make the rope perfectly horizontal, the force applied to each of its ends must be

1.  less than w
2.  equal to w
3.  equal to 2 w
4.  infinitely large

21.

A particle moves along a curve of unknown shape but magnitude of force F is constant and always acts along tangent to the curve. Then,

1.  F may be conservative
2.  F must be conservative
3.  F may be non-conservative
4.  F must be non-conservative

22.

A block has been placed on an inclined plane with the slope angle θ, block slide down the plane at constant speed. The coefficient of kinetic friction is equal to

1.  sin θ
2.  cos θ
3.  g
4.  tan θ

23.

A charge q is located at the centre of a cube. The electric flux through any face is

1.

24.

During SHM, a particle has displacement x from mean position. If acceleration. Kinetic energy and excess potential energy are represented by a K and U respectively, then choose the appropriate graph
1.

25.

The root mean square velocity of hydrogen molecule at 27 ° C is

and that of oxygen at 402 ° C is

, then
1.

26.

A charged spherical conductor of radius a and charge q, is surrounded by another charged concentric sphere of radius b (b > a) . The potential difference between conductors is V. When, the spherical conductor of radius b is discharged completely, then the potential difference between conductor will be

1. V
2.

4. None of the above

27.

The current-voltage graph for a device is shown in figure. The resistance is negative in region.

1.  AB
2.  BC
3.  ABC
4.  None of these

28.

Silver and copper voltmeters are connected in parallel with a battery of emf 12 V. In 30 min 1 g of silver and 1.8 g of copper are liberated. The energy supplied by the battery is

1.  720 J
2.  2.41 J
3.  24.12 J
4.  4.34 × 104 J

29.

At a specific instant emission of radioactive compound is deflected in a magnetic field. The compound can emit

1.  Aelectron
2.  protons
3.  H2+
4. neutrons

30.

A magnet is cut in three equal parts by cutting it perpendicular to its length. The time period of original magnet is T₀ in a uniform magnetic field B. Then, the time period of each part in the same magnetic field is

1.

4. None of these

31.

A 50 Hz AC current of crest value 1 A flows through the primary of a transformer. If the mutual inductance between the primary and secondary be 0.5 H, the crest voltage induced in the secondary is

1.  75 V
2.  150 V
3.  100 V
4.  None of these

32.

If the length and area of cross-section of a conductor are doubled, then its resistance will be

1.  unchanged
2.  halved
3.  doubled
4.  quadrupled

33.

A source of light lies on the angle bisector of two plane mirrors inclined at angle θ. The values of θ, so that the light reflected from one mirror does not reach the other mirror will be

1.

4. None of the above

34.

A ruby laser produces radiations of wavelengths, 662.6 nm in pulse whose duration are 10^–9 s. If the laser produces 0.39 J of energy per pulse, how many photons are produced in each pulse?

1. 1.3 × 10⁹
2. 1.3 × 10¹⁸
3. 1.3 × 10²⁷
4. 3.9 × 10¹⁸

35.

Balmer gives an equation for wavelength of visible radiation of H– spectrum as $\lambda=\frac{k n^{2}}{n^{2}-4}$ . The value of k in terms of Rydberg’s constant R is
1. R
2. 4R
3. $R \over 4$
4. $4 \over R$

36.

and

are electron and hole mobility, E be the applied electric field, the current density

for intrinsic semiconductor is equal to
1.

37.

The KE of the electron in an orbit of radius r in hydrogen atom is (e = electronic charge)
1.

38.

Three charged particles are collinear and are in equilibrium, then

1.  All the charged particles have the same polarity
2.  The equilibrium is unstable
3.  All the charged particles cannot have the same polarity
4.  Both (b) and (c) are correct

39.

The capacitive time constant of the RC circuit shown in the figure is

1.  Zero
2.  infinity
3.  2s
4.

40.

Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	Mass of moving photons varies inversely as the wavelength.
Reason (R):	The energy of the particle = Mass × (speed of light)².

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	(A) is false but (R) is true.

41.

Direction: In each of the Following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion A hollow metallic closed container maintained at a uniform temperature can act as a source of a black body radiation.
Reason All metals act as a black body.

1.  If both assertion and reason are true and reason explain the assertion.
2.  If both the assertion and reason are true but reason does not explain the assertion.
3.  If assertion is true but reason is false.
4.  If assertion is false but reason is true.

42.

Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	The ratio of inertial mass to gravitational mass is equal to one.
Reason (R):	The inertial mass and gravitational mass of a body are equivalent.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	(A) is false but (R) is true.

43.

Direction: In each of the Following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion In a stationary wave, there is no transfer of energy.
Reason There is no outward motion of the disturbance from one particle to adjoining particle in a stationary wave.

44.

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):

Assertion (A):	In photoelectron emission the velocity of electron ejected from near the surface is larger than that coming from interior of metal.
Reason (R):	The velocity of ejected electron will be zero.

In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	(A) is false but (R) is true.

45.

Direction: In each of the Following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion If the ice on the polar caps of the earth melts, the length of day will increase.
Reason Moment of inertia of the earth increases, as ice on polar caps melts.

1.  If both assertion and reason are true and reason explain the assertion.
2.  If both the assertion and reason are true but reason does not explain the assertion.
3.  If assertion is true but reason is false.
4.  If assertion is false but reason is true.

46.

Given below are two statements:

Assertion (A):	Dielectric polarization means the formation of positive and negative charges inside the dielectric.
Reason (R):	Free electrons are formed in this process.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	(A) is false but (R) is true.

47.

48.

Direction: In each of the Following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion The satellites equipped with electronic devices are called active satellites.
Reason Passive satellite works as active satellite

49.

Direction: In each of the Following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion In He-Ne laser, population inversion takes place between energy levels of neon atoms.
Reason Helium atoms have a metastable energy level.

1.  If both assertion and reason are true and reason explain the assertion.
2.  If both the assertion and reason are true but reason does not explain the assertion.
3.  If assertion is true but reason is false.
4.  If assertion is false but reason is true.

50.

Direction: In each of the Following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion A transistor amplifier in common emitter configuration has a low input impedance.
Reason The base to emitter region is forward biased.
1.  If both assertion and reason are true and reason explain the assertion.
2.  If both the assertion and reason are true but reason does not explain the assertion.
3.  If assertion is true but reason is false.
4.  If assertion is false but reason is true.

51.

Direction: In each of the Following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion Thermodynamic process in nature are irreversible.
Reason Dissipative effects cannot be eliminated.

52.

Direction: In each of the Following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion Crystalline solids can cause X-rays to diffract.
Reason Interatomic distance in crystalline solids is of the order of 0.1 nm.

53.

Direction: In each of the Following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion For higher temperature, the peak emission wavelength of a black body shifts to lower wavelength.
Reason Peak emission wavelength of a blackbody is proportional to the fourth power of temperature.

54.

Direction: In each of the Following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion Displacement of a body may be zero, when distance travelled by it is not zero.
Reason The displacement is the longer distance between initial and final position.

55.

56.

57.

58.

59.

In each of the Following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below

60.

The IUPAC name of the given compound is:

1.  4-Methoxy-2-nitrobenzaldehyde
2.  4-Formyl-3-nitro anisole
3.  4-Methoxy-6-nitrobenzaldehyde
4.  2-Formyl-5-methoxy nitrobenzene

61.

Butyne-1 on oxidation with hot alkaline KMnO₄ would give

1.  CH₃CH₂CH₂COOH
2.  CH₃CH₂COOH
3.  CH₃CH₂COOH + CO₂ + H₂O
4.  CH₃CH₂COOH + HCOOH

62.

Which one of the following statements is false?

1.  Photochemical smog causes irritation in eyes
2.  London smog is a mixture of smoke and fog
3.  Photochemical smog results in the formation of PAN
4.  London smog is oxidizing in nature

63.

Which of the following aqueous solutions has the highest boiling point?

1. 0.1 M KNO₃
2. 0.1 M Na₃PO₄
3. 0.1 M BaCl₂
4. 0.1 M K₂SO₄

64.

An increase in equivalent conductance of a strong electrolyte with dilution is mainly due to

1.  increase in number of ions
2.  increase in ionic mobility of ions
3.  increase in both, i.e., number of ions and ions mobility of ions
4.  at normal dilution 100% ionization of electrolyte

65.

The rate constant for a first order reaction becomes six times when the temperature is raised from 350 K to 400 K. Calculate the activation energy for the reaction.

1. 4.17 kJ mol^–1
2. 41.7 kJ mol^–1
3. 417.0 kJ mol^–1
4. 4170 kJ mol^–1

66.

When dilute aqueous solution of AgNO₃ (excess) is added to KI solution, positively charged sol of Agl in formed due to adsorption of

1.

67.

In electrorefining of copper some gold is deposited at

1.  cathode
2.  anode mud
3.  cathode mud
4.  electrode

68.

CaCN₂ + C is called on

1.  urea
2.  thomas slag
3.  nitrolim
4.  triple super phosphate

69.

Which one of the following forms vortex ring?

1. P₂O₅
2. PH₃
3. NH₃
4. P₄O₁₀

70.

What is X, in the following reaction?

1. K₂SO₄
2. K₂S₂O₄
3. K₂S₂O₃
4. K₂S₂O₈

71.

Europium element belongs to:
1. s – block element
2. p – block element
3. d – block element
4. f – block element

72.

The stability of ferric ion is due to

1.  half-filled d-orbitals
2.  half-filled f-orbitals
3.  completely filled d-orbitals
4.  completely filled f-orbitals

73.

An octahedral complex is formed when hybrid orbitals of the following types are involved.

1. sp³
2. dsp³
3. d²sp³
4. sp³d²

74.

Which one amongst of the following isomerism is shown by

1.  Structural
2.  Geometrical
3.  Optical
4.  Conformational

75.

The structural formula of lithium tetrahydridoaluminate, among the following is:

1. Al[LiH₄]

2. Al₂[LiH₄]₃

3. Li[AlH₄]

4. Li[AlH₄]₂

76.

Find the major product in the following reaction,

77.

An organic compound which produces a bluish green coloured flame on heating in presence of copper is

1.  chlorobenzene
2.  benzaldehyde
3.  aniline
4.  benzoic acid

78.

In Williamson’s synthesis, ethoxy ethane is prepared by:

1.	Heating sodium ethoxide with ethyl bromide.
2.	Passing ethanol over heated alumina.
3.	Treating ethyl alcohol with an excess of conc. H₂SO₄ at 430-440 K.
4.	Heating ethanol with dry $Ag_2O$

79.

Which among the following compounds will give a secondary alcohol on reacting with Grignard reagent followed by acid hydrolysis?
I. HCHO II. C₂H₅CHO
III. CH₃COCH₃ IV. RCOOC₂H₅
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

1.  Only II
2.  Only III
3.  II and IV
4.  III and IV

80.

Which of the following is the industrial method of preparation of acetaldehyde?
1.

4. All of the above

81.

C₃H₆O did not give a silver mirror with Tollens reagent, but gave an oxime with hydroxylamine. It can give positive.

1.  Iodoform test
2.  Fehling's test
3.  Schiff’s test
4.  carbyl amines test

82.

Which of the following carboxylic acid undergoes decarboxylation easily?

1.  C₆H₅COCOOH
2.  C₆H₅COCH₂COOH
3.  C₆H₅CHOHCOOH
4.

83.

$\psi ^{2} \ = \ 0$ represents:
1. a node
2. an orbital
3. angular wave function
4. wave function

84.

If the de-Broglie wavelength of a particle of mass m is 100 times its velocity then the wavelength value in terms of its mass (m) and Planck’s constant (h) is:
1.

$\frac{1}{10}\sqrt{\frac{m}{h}}$

$10\sqrt{\frac{h}{m}}$

$\frac{1}{10}\sqrt{\frac{h}{m}}$

$10\sqrt{\frac{m}{h}}$

85. The pair with similar geometry (shape) is:

1. PCl₃, NH₄⁺
2. BeCl₂, H₂O
3. CH₄, CCl₄
4. IF₅, PF₅

86.

The correct order in which the – O bond length increases is

1. H₂O < O₂ < O₃
_2.O₃ < H₂O₂ < O₂
_3.O₂ < O₃ < H₂O₂
_4.O₂ < H₂O₂ < O₃

87.

An LPG cylinder, containing 15 kg butane at 27 ºC and 10 atm pressure, is leaking. After one day, its pressure decreased to 8 atm. The quantity of gas leaked is

1.  1 kg
2.  2 kg
3.  3 kg
4.  4 kg

88.

Assume each reaction is carried out in a open container. For which reaction

?

1.

89.

In a basic buffer, 0.0025 mole of NH₄Cl and 0.15 mole of NH₄OH are present. The pH of the solution will be :
(Given pKb = 4.74)

1.	11.04	2.	10.24
3.	6.52	4.	5.48

90.

Strongest conjugate base is

1. Cl^–
^2.Br^–
3. F^–
4. l^–

91.

For the gas phase reaction,

Carried out in a vessel, the equilibrium concentration of C₂H₄ can be increased by

1.  decreasing the pressure
2.  increasing the temperature
3.  removing some C2H6
4. adding some H2

92.

Which one of the following is a conjugated protein?

1.  Phoshoprotein
2.  Glycoprotein
3.  Chromoprotein
4.  All of these

93.

A solution containing 0.319 g of CrCl₃.6H₂O was passed through a cation exchange resin and acid coming out of the cation exchange resin required 28.5 mL of 0.125 M NaOH. Determine correct formula of the complex [mol. Wt. of the complex = 266.5]

1.

94.

Which of the following is not an actinoid?

1.  Curium (Z = 96)
2.  Californium (Z = 98)
3.  Uranium (Z = 92)
4.  Terbium (Z = 65)

95.

The period number in the long form of the periodic table is equal to

1.  Magnetic quantum number of any element of the period
2.  Atomic number of any element of the period
3.  Maximum principal quantum number of any element of the period
4.  Maximum azimuthal quantum number of any element of the period

96.

If the IP of Na is 5.48 eV, the ionisation potential of K will be

1.  Same as that of Na
2.  4.34 eV
3.  5.68 eV
4.  10.88 eV

97.

The entropy change involved in the isothermal reversible expansion of 2 moles of an ideal gas from a volume of 10 dm³ at 27 ° C is to a volume of 100 dm³

1. 42.3 J mol^–1 K^–1
2. 38.3 J mol^–1 K^–1
3. 35.8 J mol^–1 K^–1
4. 32.3 J mol^–1 K^–1

98.

Which of the following reagents may be used to distinguish between phenol and benzoic acid?

1. Neutral FeCl₃

2. Aqueous NaOH
3. Tollen’s reagent
4. Molisch reagent

99.

100.

Direction: In each of the following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion p-toluidine is a stronger base than m-toluene.
Reason Methyl group from m-position exerts smaller electron donating inductive (+I) effect than from p-position.

101.

Direction: In each of the following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below

Assertion 2-butyne on controlled hydrogenation with Pd/CaCo₃ in presence of PbO gives cis-2-butene.
Reason Hydrogenation occur at the surfaces of metal containing adsorbed hydrogen.

102.

103.

Direction: In each of the following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion Reaction of alcohols with SOCL₂ is catalysed by the presence of a tertiary amine (R₃N).
Reason Tertiary amine promote the reaction by reacting with the by-product HCl.

104.

Direction: In each of the following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion Aldol condensation is usually carried out in dilute solution of a strong base.
Reason Concentrated solution of strong base involves cannizzaro reaction

105.

Direction: In each of the following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion Malonic acid (HOOC – CH₂ – COOH) does not form cyclic anhydride on heating.
Reason It is like β-keto acid, on heating it prefer to decarboxylate.

106.

Direction: In each of the following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion Both 106 g of sodium carbonate and 12 g of graphite have same number of carbon atoms.
Reason Both 106 g sodium carbonate and 12 g of graphite contain 1 g-atom of carbon atoms.

107.

Direction: In each of the following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion Energy of electron is largely determined by its principal quantum number.
Reason Principal quantum number is a measure of the most possible distance of finding the electron around the nucleus.

108.

Direction: In each of the following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion When 1.0 mol of NaCl is doped with 10^-3 mol SrCl₂, the number of cationic sites remaining vacant is 10^-3.
Reason Each SrCl₂ unit produces two cationic vacancy.

109.

as well as

, passes from non-spontaneous to spontaneous state as temperature is increased.
Reason At higher temperature,

exceeds

110.

Direction: In each of the following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion A catalyst does not influence the value of equilibrium constant.
Reason Catalyst influence the rate of both forward and backward reactions equally.

111.

Direction: In each of the following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion Addition of a nonvolatile solute to a volatile solvent increases the boiling point.
Reason Addition of non-volatile solute results in lowering of vapour pressure.

112.

Direction: In each of the following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion Electrolysis of molten CaH₂ produces hydrogen gas at anode.
Reason In CaH₂ , hydrogen is present in the form of hydride H^–.

113.

Direction: In each of the following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion NaOH cannot be stored in a vessel made of aluminium or zinc.
Reason A protective layer of oxide is formed on the surface of the metal.

114.

Direction: In each of the following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion Boron always forms covalent bond
Reason The small size of B³⁺ favours formation of covalent bond.

115.

Direction: In each of the following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion CaF₂ has been given the name fluorspar.
Reason Solid CaF₂ emits light when heated.

116.

Direction: In each of the following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion The purple colour of KMnO₄ is due to the charge transfer transition.
Reason The intense colour in most of the transition metal complexes is due to d-d transition.

117.

Direction: In each of the following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion Al₂O₃is converted to aluminium by reduction with carbon.
Reason Carbon (graphite) has greater affinity for oxygen than Al.

118.

Direction: In each of the following questions, two statements are given. One is assertion and the other is reason. Examine the statement carefully and mark the correct answer according to the instruction given below
Assertion [Ni(CO)₄]is a diamagnetic complex.
Reason All the electrons in the complex are paired.

119.

Wings of pigeon, bat and mosquito shows

1.  atavism
2.  convergent evolution
3.  divergent evolution
4.  mutation

120.

Phylogenetic system of classification includes

1.  evolutionary trends only
2.  genetic trends only
3.  evolutionary trend as well as morphology
4.  behavioural trends in environment

121.

‘Red tide’ is caused by

1. Gonyaulax
2.  Ceratium
3.  Triceratium
4.  All of these

122.

A person sitting at rest experiences a temporary cessation of breathing after forced deep breathing for a few minutes. This is due to

1.  too much CO2 in the blood
2.  too much O2 in the blood
3.  very little CO2 in the blood
4.  both high O2 and very little CO2 in the blood

123.

A physiological response of plants to the duration of light and darkness is a

1.  daily phase cycle
2.  circadian rhythms
3.  biological clock
4.  photoperiodism

124.

ABA is involved in

1.  Shoot elongation
2.  Increased cell division
3.  Dormancy of seed
4.  Root elongation

125.

There is the increase in blood urea when there is insufficient filtration in

1.  Loop of Henle
2.  distal tubule
3.  Bowman’s capsule
4.  collecting tubule

126.

Aerobic respiration produces more unsable chemical energy than fermentation, because fermentation involves

1.  formation of lactic acid
2.  complete oxidation of food
3.  partial oxidation of food
4.  evolution of CO2 and alcohol

127.

Which one of the following correctly describes the location of some body parts in the earthworm (Pheretima)?

1.  Four pairs of spermathecae in 4-7 segments
2.  One pair of ovaries attached at intersegmental septum of 14th and 15th segments
3.  Two pairs of testes in 10th and 11th segments
4.  Two pairs of accessory glands in 16-18th segments

128.

Hypothetical plant hormones are

1.  florigen
2.  vernalin
3.  florigen and venalin
4.  auxin

129.

Which one of the following shows heterothallism?

1. Rhizopus
2. Bacterium
3. Cycas
4. Ricinus

130.

A drug addict showed symptoms such as increased appetite, chest pain, redness of eyes, increased urination. He was possibly taking

1.  Cannabis compounds
2.  LSD
3.  cocaine
4.  amphetamines

131.

The brain disease caused due to accumulation of amyloid β-peptide is

1.  Addison’s disease
2.  Huntington’s disease
3.  Parkinson’s disease
4.  Alzheimer’s disease

132.

Which of the following is a ‘cyanophage’?

1. S – 13
2.

3. SV - 40
4. LPP - 1

133.

Match items in Column I with those in Column II.

1.  A-3 B-1 C-4 D-5 E-2
2.  A-2 B-3 C-4 D-1 E-5
3.  A-4 B-2 C-1 D-5 E-3
4.  A-2 B-4 C-3 D-5 E-1

134.

Osmosis is a type of

1.  imbibitions of solution
2.  diffusion of solvent
3.  evaporation of water
4.  diffusion of solute

135.

RQ (Respiratory Quotient) is defined as

AVolume of CO₂ evolved = volume of O₂ consumed

136.

Atretic follicles are found in the

1.  fallopian tubes
2.  uterus
3.  labia majora
4.  ovary

137.

Which one is matched correctly?

1.  Arsenic – Black foot disease
2.  Flouride – Itai-itai
3.  Mercury – Skeletal fluorosis
4.  Cadmium – Minamata disease

138.

Leghaemoglobin helps in

1.  Nitrogen-fixation
2.  Protecting nitrogenase from O2
3.  Destroy bacteria
4.  Transport of food in plants

139.

Match the Column I with Column II.

1.  A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4
2.  A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4
3.  A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
4.  A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1

140.

‘Cladode’ is a characteristic morphological feature of

1.  Asparagus and Ruscus
2.  Casuarina and Opuntia
3.  Cladophora and Cactus
4.  Citrus and Euphorbia

141.

The species diversity decreases from lower to higher altitudes on a mountain. This is due to

1.  increase in temperature
2.  decrease in temperature
3.  greater seasonal variability
4.  Both (b) and (c)

142.

What is not a common feature is Periplaneta and Scorpions?

1.  Excretory organs are malpighian tubules
2.  No appendages in abdomen
3.  Respiratory organs are trachea
4.  Both are mostly terrestrial arthropods

143.

Cycas is classified as gymnosperms due to its

1.  motile sperms
2.  fruit formation
3.  naked ovule
4.  pycnoxylic wood

144.

In an area, a population with large size individuals having long lifespan, more parental care and slow development was resent. The type of population growth curve will be

1.  S-shaped
2.  J-shaped
3.  Z-shaped
4.  All of these

145.

A gland called ‘Clock of ageing’ that gradually reduces and degenerates in ageing is

1.  thyroid
2.  thymus
3.  parathyroid
4.  pituitary

146.

Which of the following statement is correct?

1.  DPD = OP – WP
2.  DPD = OP + WP
3.  DPD = WP – OP
4.  DPD = TP + OP

147.

Censar mechanism of seed dispersal is found in

1.  Papaveraceae
2.  Liliaceae
3.  Leguminosae
4.  Rosaceae

148.

At a particular locus, frequency of ‘A’ allele is 0.6 and that of ‘a’ is 0.4. What would be the frequency of heterozygotes in randomly mating population of equilibrium?

1.  0.16
2.  0.36
3.  0.48
4.  0.24

149.

The C₄ plants differ for C₃ plants with reference to the

1.  substrate that accepts CO2 in carbon assimilation
2.  type of end product
3.  type of pigment involved in photosynthesis
4.  number of ATP that are consumed in preparing sugar.

150.

The colour in the brown fat is due is

1.  its larger capacity for generating heat
2.  large number of mitochondria present
3.  a high concentration of iron containing cytochrome pigments
4.  presence of chromatophores

151.

Which of the following is common among mammals?

1.  They do not moult
2.  They have seven cervical vertebrae
3.  They are carnivores
4.  They have ventral nerve cord

152.

Elater mechanism for seed dispersal is exhibited by

1. Riccia
2. Marchantia
3. Dryopteris
4. Funaria

153.

In which one of the following pairs, the two items mean the same thing?

1.  Haemophilia – Blood cancer
2.  SA-node – Pacemaker
3.  Malleus – Anvil
4.  Leucocytes – Lymphocytes

154.

Which of the following part of human brain is also called emotional brain?

1.  Corpus callosum
2.  Limbic system
3.  Epithalamus
4.  Broca’s area

155.

If the length and area of cross-section of a conductor are doubled, then its resistance will be

1.  unchanged
2.  halved
3.  doubled
4.  quadrupled

156.

Which of the following set of elements are essential for the photosynthesis to occurs

1.  Cu, Co, Fe
2.  Cu, Mo, Zn
3.  Mg, Co, Mn
4.  Mg, Fe, Mn, Cu, Cl, P

157.

The disease caused by Leishmania and transmitted by Phlebotomus is

1.  African sleeping sickness
2.  Amoebic dysentery
3.  Kala-azar fever
4.  Chaga’s disease

158.

Saheli, is an oral contraceptive pill that has very high contraceptive value with little side effects. It is because

1.  it is taken once in a weak
2.  it contains synthetic progesterone
3.  it contains centchroman
4.  it decreases risk of cancer

159.

Direction: These questions consist two statement each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these question, you are required to choose any one of the following four options.
Assertion Rigor mortis is the state of body suffering prior to death.
Reason It is due to relaxation of action and myosin filaments.

160.

Direction: These questions consist two statement each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these question, you are required to choose any one of the following four options.
Assertion Seeds fails to germinate at very low and high temperature.
Reason Seeds sown deep into the soil fail to germinate.

161.

These questions consist two statement each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these question, you are required to choose any one of the following four options.
Assertion Lysosomes are organelle in eukaryotic cells that contains digestive enzymes to digest macromolecules.
Reason Lysosomes are also called phagolysosomes or hetero phagosomes or digestive vacuoles.

162.

Direction: These questions consist two statement each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these question, you are required to choose any one of the following four options.
Assertion Reproductive isolation brings about sympatric speciation.
Reason It is the primary mode of speciation, e.g., Darwin’s finches.

163.

Direction: These questions consist two statement each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these question, you are required to choose any one of the following four options.
Assertion Presence of photorespiration is considered as a wasteful and energy consuming process in crop plants, ultimately leads to reduction in yield.
Reason During

synthesis up 50% CO₂ fixed may have to pass through the photorespiratory process to form carbohydrate such as sucrose.

164.

Direction: These questions consist two statement each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these question, you are required to choose any one of the following four options.
Assertion Enzymes becomes inactive below minimum temperature.
Reason The inactivity of the enzymes is due to denaturation.

165.

Direction:These questions consist two statement each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these question, you are required to choose any one of the following four options.
Assertion Fine structure of the objects can be observed by Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM).
Reason Study of living cells can not be done through TEM, because of high voltage, which is required to operate it, kills the cells.

166.

Direction:These questions consist two statement each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these question, you are required to choose any one of the following four options.
Assertion The total content of iron in an adult body is 3.5 gram. The iron deficiency lead to anemia.
Reason Iron (Fe²⁺) combines with the pigment porphyrin to form heme.

167.

Direction: These questions consist two statement each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these question, you are required to choose any one of the following four options.
Assertion Mammals have developed a complex respiratory system.
Reason Mammalian skin is impermeable to gases.

168.

Direction: These questions consist two statement each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these question, you are required to choose any one of the following four options.
Assertion Removal of keystone species cause serious disruption in the functioning of the community.
Reason Keystone species are low in abundance (or biomass) than the dominant species.

169.

Direction: These questions consist two statement each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these question, you are required to choose any one of the following four options.
Assertion In bacteria the chromosome is irregularly folded into a compact mass, the nucleoid or genophore of definite form.
Reason In bacteria there is no organized nucleus.

170.

Direction: These questions consist two statement each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these question, you are required to choose any one of the following four options.
Assertion DNA is more stable while RNA is more reactive.
Reason DNA was first discovered by Watson and Crick (1953).

171.

Direction:These questions consist two statement each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these question, you are required to choose any one of the following four options.
Assertion Second infection of the same pathogen is quickly eliminated.
Reason Preformed memory B and T-cells elicit a quick and vigorous attack on pathogens.

172.

Assertion Eukaryotic cells have more DNA than prokaryotic cells.
Reason Eukaryotes are more complex than prokaryotes genetically

173.

Assertion In open water zone upto the depth to which light can penetrate, called photic zone.
Reason The photic zone is categorized into euphotic and is photic zone.

174.

Assertion Zoospores in Chlamydomonas are frequently formed in the night during favourable conditions.
Reason Zoospore swims for a certain time and then grows into a new plant.

175.

Assertion After hearing a sound, nerve impulse passes from neurons to the brain.
Reason The neurons which passes nerve impulse from body organ to brain is called afferent neuron.

176.

Assertion Placenta in addition to connection with mother and foetus to ductless gland.
Reason It releases human gonadotropins.

177.

Assertion A woman is capable of suing a man of refusing to own a child, who has a blood group O. The man has blood group B and woman has A.
Reason She is right as genetically, he can be the father of the child.

178.

Assertion The thallus of Riccia is internally differentiated into an upper photosynthetic region and lower storage region.
Reason The lower storage region is formed from parenchymatous cells.

179.

Which of the following statement is correct?

1.  DPD = OP – WP
2.  DPD = OP + WP
3.  DPD = WP – OP
4.  DPD = TP + OP

180.

Censar mechanism of seed dispersal is found in

1.  Papaveraceae
2.  Liliaceae
3.  Leguminosae
4.  Rosaceae

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