Biology Prodigy Test #7 (Part Test)

Botany - Section A

1.

To obtain virus-free healthy plants from a diseased one by tissue culture technique, which part/parts of the diseased plant will be taken?

1.	Apical meristem only
2.	Palisade parenchyma
3.	Both apical and axillary meristems
4.	Epidermis only

2.

The inheritance of colour in wheat Kernel shown below is explained by:

1.	Polygenic inheritance	2.	Pleiotropy
3.	Epistatic interaction	4.	Multiple allelism

3.

Wind pollinated flowers are:

1.	small, brightly coloured, producing large number of pollen grains
2.	small, producing large number of dry pollen grains
3.	large, producing abundant nectar and pollen
4.	small, producing nectar and dry pollen

4.

The body of the ovule is fused within the funicle at :

1.	Micropyle	2.	Nucellus
3.	Chalaza	4.	Hilum

5.

In a typical dihybrid cross, AaBb X AaBb [assuming complete dominance and independent assortment], what would the ratio of progeny be with the following genotypes?

AaBb : Aabb : AABb : aabb

1.	2 : 1 : 2 : 1	2.	2 : 2 : 1 : 1
3.	4 : 1 : 2 : 1	4.	4 : 2 : 2 : 1

6.

Tapetum:

1.	is the outermost layer in the wall of microsporangium
2.	helps in the protection of the pollen grains
3.	helps in dehiscence of anther
4.	has cells that generally have more than one nucleus

7.

The RNA polymerase I does not transcribe:

1.	28S rRNA	2.	18S rRNA
3.	5.8S rRNA	4.	5S rRNA

8. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Pollen grains shed at 2-celled stage	P	In about 60 per cent of angiosperms
B	Pollen grains shed at 3-celled stage	Q	In about 40 per cent of angiosperms
C	Pollen intine	R	Made up of sporopollenin
D	Pollen exine	S	Made up of cellulose and pectin

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	P	R	S
2.	Q	P	S	R
3.	P	Q	S	R
4.	P	Q	R	S

9.

Consider the following statements:

I:	All the reference point while defining a transcription unit is made with the coding strand.
II:	It is the presence of a promoter in a transcription unit that also defines the template and coding strands.
III:	Exons are said to be sequences that do not appear in mature or processed RNA.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

10. Assuming independent assortment, how many different phenotypes can appear in the offspring if individual plants with genotype AaBb are intercrossed?

1.	2	2.	3
3.	4	4.	9

11.

The rivet popper hypothesis was given by:

1.	Humboldt	2.	Ehlrich
3.	Tilman	4.	Tansley

12.

Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Griffith	P	Bacterial transformation
B	Hershey and Chase	Q	Proved DNA replication is semi-conservative
C	Meselson and Stahl	R	DNA and not protein is the genetic material
D	Watson and Crick	S	Proposed DNA replication is semi-conservative

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	R	Q	S
2.	R	P	S	Q
3.	P	R	S	Q
4.	R	P	Q	S

13. Biodiversity hotspots are not characterised by:

1.	Having a large number of species
2.	Abundance of endemic species
3.	Being mostly located in the tropics
4.	Being mostly located in the polar regions

14. The two innermost wall layers of microsporangium in an anther are:

1.	Endothecium and tapetum
2.	Epidermis and endodermis
3.	Epidermis and middle layer
4.	Middle layer and tapetum

15.

During artificial hybridization in plant breeding experiments, if the female parent produces unisexual flowers:

1.	Emasculation should be done before the dehiscence of the anther
2.	Emasculation should be done after the dehiscence of the anther
3.	Emasculation is not needed
4.	They cannot be used in plant breeding experiments

16. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous.
Statement II:	Chasmogamous flowers can never be autogamous.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

17.

Consider the following statements:

I:	When certain exotic species are introduced into a geographical area, they become invasive because the invaded land does not have its natural predators.
II:	Competition is best defined as a process in which the fitness of one species is significantly lower in the presence of another species.
III:	Biological control methods adopted in agricultural pest control are based on the ability of the predator to regulate the prey population.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

18. The nearer two genes are on a chromosome:

1.	the higher the chance of recombination between them.
2.	the lower the chance of recombination between them.
3.	the lower the chance of both being dominant alleles.
4.	the higher the chance of both being dominant alleles.

19.

What is not true for genetic code?
1. A codon in mRNA is read in non-contiguous fashion
2. It is nearly universal
3. It is degenerate
4. It is unambiguous

20.

Match each item in Column I [biocontrol agent] with one in Column II [pest controlled] and select the answer from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A.	Ladybird	P.	Mosquitoes
B.	Dragonflies	Q.	Aphids
C.	Trichoderma	R.	Fungus
D.	Baculoviruses	S.	Virus

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	R	S
2.	Q	P	R	S
3.	P	Q	S	R
4.	Q	P	S	R

21.

Cyclosporin A, used as an immuno-suppression agent, is produced from:

1.	Monascus purpureus	2.	Saccharomyces cerevisiae
3.	Penicillium notatum	4.	Trichoderma polysporum

22. Given the following statements about activities in the early earth:

I:	Water vapour, methane, carbon dioxide, and ammonia released from molten mass covered the surface.
II:	The UV rays from the sun broke up water into Hydrogen and Oxygen and the lighter H₂ escaped.
III:	Oxygen combined with ammonia and methane to form water, CO_2, and other gases.
IV:	As it cooled, the water vapour fell as rain, filling all the depressions and forming oceans.

Select the correct statements:
1. Only I, II and III are correct
2. Only I, II and IV are correct
3. Only II, III and IV are correct
4. All are correct

23. The frequencies of dominant and recessive alleles of a gene in a population are 0.7 and 0.3 respectively. The expected frequency for heterozygotes in the population is likely to be:

1.	42%	2.	49%
3.	21%	4.	9%

24.

The correct order of steps in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) is:

1. Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
2. Annealing, Extension, Denaturation
3. Denaturation, Extension, Annealing
4. Denaturation, Annealing, Extension

25. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Heat shock	P	Transforming plant cells
B	Agrobacterium	Q	Transforming bacterial cells
C	Restriction enzyme	R	Cuts dsDNA at specific recognition sequences
D	DNA ligase	S	Joins two pieces of DNA with same sticky ends

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	S	R
2.	P	Q	R	S
3.	Q	P	S	R
4.	Q	P	R	S

26.

Elution is:

1.	separating the restricted DNA fragments on agarose gel
2.	staining the separated DNA fragments with ethidium bromide
3.	cutting out of the separated bands of DNA from the agarose gel and extracting them from the gel piece
4.	constructing rDNA by joining the purified DNA fragments to the cloning vector

27.

The work of which of the following scientists led to the establishment of the discipline of modern biotechnology?

1.	Banting and Best	2.	Bolivar and Rodriguez
3.	Hershey and Chase	4.	Cohen and Boyer

28.

Consider the following statements:

I:	In an aquatic ecosystem, Grazing Food Chain (GFC) is the major conduit for energy flow.
II:	In a terrestrial ecosystem, Detritus Food Chain (DFC) is the major conduit for energy flow.
III:	GFC and DFC are not interconnected at any level.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

29.

What controls the copy number of linked DNA if plasmid is used as a vector in bacterial transformation?

1.	Ori	2.	rop
3.	Selectable markers	4.	Promoter in the insert

30. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used to design novel:
1. Biofertilizers
2. Biometallurgic techniques
3. Biomineralization processes
4. Bioinsecticidal plants

31. In India, the organization responsible for assessing the safety of introducing genetically modified organisms for public use is:

1.	Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR)
2.	Council for Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR)
3.	Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation (RCGM)
4.	Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)

32. GM crops have been modified with various traits. Golden rice has been developed by the International Rice Research Institute for:
1. Improved shelf life
2. Disease resistance
3. Herbicide resistance
4. Improved nutritional value

33. Which of the following properties is the reason that whole plants can be regenerated from explants?

1.	Phenotypic plasticity	2.	Cellular totipotency
3.	Open growth	4.	Open differentiation

34. Match List-I with List-II.

	List-I		List-II
A.	Logistic growth	I.	Unlimited resource availability condition
B.	Exponential growth	II.	Limited resource availability condition
C.	Expanding age pyramid	III.	The percent individuals of pre-reproductive age is largest followed by reproductive and post reproductive age groups
D.	Stable age pyramid	IV.	The percent individuals of pre-reproductives and reproductive age group are same

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

Options:	A	B	C	D
1.	II	IV	III	I
2.	II	I	III	IV
3.	II	III	I	IV
4.	II	IV	I	III

35. Consider the two given statements:

Assertion (A):	Foreign and vector DNA must be cleaved with the same restriction enzyme when making recombinant DNA.
Reason (R):	Each restriction enzyme cuts DNA at a specific cleavage site.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
2.	(A) is True; (R) is False
3.	(A) is False; (R) is True
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).

Botany - Section B

36. The enzyme used in PCR:

I:	is a DNA-dependent DNA polymerase
II:	extends the primers in template independent manner
III:	is thermostable

1.	Only I and II are correct
2.	Only I and III are correct
3.	Only II and III are correct
4.	I, II and III are correct

37. Read the following statements and choose the set of incorrect statements:

(a)	Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin
(b)	Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active
(c)	Histone octamer is wrapped by negatively charged DNA in nucleosome
(d)	Histones are rich in lysine and arginine
(e)	A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA helix

Choose the correct answer from the options given below
1. (a), (c), (e) only
2. (b), (d), (e) only
3. (a), (c), (d) only
4. (b), (e) only

38. The 2022 United Nations Climate Change Conference or Conference of the Parties of the UNFCCC, more commonly referred to as COP27 was held in:
1. Glasgow, Scotland
2. Sharm El Sheikh, Egypt
3. Paris, France
4. New Delhi, India

39.

Which enzyme(s) will be produced in a cell in which there is a non-sense mutation in the lac Y gene?

1.	Lactose permease
2.	Transacetylase
3.	Lactose permease and transacetylase
4.	β - galactosidase

40.

Given below are four statements pertaining to the separation of DNA fragments using gel electrophoresis. Identify the incorrect statements:

(a)	DNA is a negatively charged molecule and so it is loaded on gel towards the anode terminal.
(b)	DNA fragments travel along the surface of the gel, whose concentration does not affect the movement of DNA.
(c)	The smaller the DNA fragment, the greater the distance it travels through it.
(d)	Pure DNA can be visualized directly by exposing it to UV radiation.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(a), (c) and (d)	2.	(a), (b) and (c)
3.	(b), (c) and (d)	4.	(a), (b) and (d)

41. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product that it has information for.
Reason (R):	The frequency of a gene or an allele in a population is ultimately decided by factors such as natural selection.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

42.

In an open ocean, the pyramid of biomass is often inverted. How can this support higher trophic levels?

1.	The food produced by primary producers is of high quality
2.	The primary producers grow and reproduce at high rates
3.	Primary producers are very abundant.
4.	The predators at higher trophic levels are very efficient

43. Identify the incorrect statement:

I:	Trichoderma species are free-living fungi that are very common in root ecosystems.
II:	Baculoviruses belong to the Genus Nucleopolyhedrovirus.

1.	Only I	2.	Only II
3.	Both I and II	4.	Neither I nor II

44. How many of the given statements are correct:

I:	Endosperm development precedes embryo development.
II:	The coconut water from tender coconut is cellular endosperm.
III:	The white kernel in coconut is free nuclear endosperm.
IV:	Endosperm is completely consumed by the developing embryo in pea.
V:	Endosperm persists in the mature seed of castor.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

45.

What functions as the embryonic root of the plant?

1.	A	2.	B
3.	C	4.	D

46.

In the apparatus of the Urey and Miller experiment, the gases [G] contained in the flask are:

1.	Methane, Carbon dioxide, Ammonia, and Water vapour
2.	Methane, Hydrogen cyanide, Ammonia, and Water vapour
3.	Methane, Ammonia, Hydrogen, and Water vapour
4.	Carbon dioxide, Oxygen, Hydrogen, and Ammonia

47.

Creation of new varieties of pest-resistant GM crops:

1.	makes crops more resistant to abiotic stresses
2.	reduces reliance on chemical pesticides
3.	enhances nutritional value of food crops
4.	increases efficiency of mineral usage by plants

48.

From the statements given below, choose the option that is true for a typical female gametophyte of a flowering plant:

I:	It is 8-nucleate and 7-celled at maturity
II:	It is free-nuclear during the development
III:	It is situated inside the integument but outside the nucellus
IV:	It has an egg apparatus situated at the chalazal end

1.	I and IV	2.	II and III
3.	I and II	4.	II and IV

49. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	The distance between the two strands of the DNA helix is approximately uniform.
Reason (R):	Base pairing is complementary, where a purine always base pairs with a pyrimidine and a pyrimidine always base pairs with a purine.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

50. The picture shows mutual relationship between the fig tree and the wasp.

I:	Many species of fig trees can only be pollinated by their ‘partner’ wasp species and no other species.
II:	The female wasp does not derive any benefit from this relationship.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

Zoology - Section A

51.

Consider the two statements:

I:	Species diversity seen in tropical areas is much lower than that seen in temperate areas.
II:	Temperate areas, unlike tropical areas are less seasonal, more constant and promote niche specialization.

1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3. I is correct but II is incorrect.
4. Both I and II are incorrect.

52.

The combination pill is taken by a female:

1.	Daily, for a period of 21 days beginning within the first 5 days of the menstrual cycle
2.	On alternate days, for a period of 21 days beginning within the first 5 days of the menstrual cycle
3.	Daily, for a period of 21 days beginning after the end of the menstrual flow
4.	Daily, for a period of 7 days beginning after the end of the menstrual flow

53.

Endoparasites are generally characterised by:

1.	greatly simplified morphological and anatomical features and high reproductive potential.
2.	greatly simplified morphological and anatomical features and low reproductive potential.
3.	highly developed morphological and anatomical features and high reproductive potential.
4.	highly developed morphological and anatomical features and low reproductive potential.

54.

Identify the human development stage shown below as well as the related right place of its occurrence in a normal pregnant woman, and select the right option for the two together:

	Developmental stage	Site of occurrence
1.	Blastula	End part of fallopian tube
2.	Blastocyst	Uterine wall
3.	8-celled morula	Starting point of fallopian tube
4.	Late morula	Middle part of fallopian tube

55. The diagram shows a possible family tree for humans. If D is Homo sapiens, what can be A and C respectively?

1. Ramapithecus and Sivapithecus
2. Sivapithecus and Ramapithecus
3. Homo habilis and Homo erectus
4. Homo erectus and Homo habilis

56.

Which of the following events is not associated with ovulation in human females?
1. Decrease in Oestradiol
2. Full development of Graafian follicle
3. Release of secondary oocyte
4. LH Surge

57. Implantation of the developing embryo occurs on the uterine endometrium:

1.	at the morula stage, within 24 – 48 hours of fertilisation
2.	at the morula stage, about 96 hours post fertilisation
3.	at the blastocyst stage, 7^th – 8^th day post fertilization
4.	at the gastrula stage, about 10 days post fertilization

58. A normal girl, whose mother is haemophilic marries a male with no ancestral history of haemophilia. What will be the possible phenotypes of the offsprings?

(a)	Haemophilic son and haemophilic daughter.
(b)	Haemophilic son and carrier daughter.
(c)	Normal daughter and normal son.
(d)	Normal son and haemophilic daughter.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
1. (a) and (b) only
2. (b) and (c) only
3. (a) and (d) only
4. (b) and (d) only

59.

The "Southern" technique involves:

1.	the detection of DNA fragments on membranes by specific radioactive antibodies.
2.	the detection of proteins on membranes using a radioactive DNA probe.
3.	the detection of DNA fragments on membranes by a radioactive DNA probe.
4.	the detection of proteins on membranes using specific radioactive antibodies.

60.

The spermatids are transformed into spermatozoa by a process called:

1.	Spermiation	2.	Spermatocytogenesis
3.	Spermiogenesis	4.	Spermatolysis

61.

Mendelian disorders are mainly determined by:

1.	Alteration or mutation in a single gene.
2.	Chromosomal gross structural changes.
3.	Recombination between linked genes.
4.	Jumping genes

62. A pyrimidine found uniquely in DNA is:

1.	Uracil	2.	Thymine
3.	Cytosine	4.	Guanine

63.

What structure gets implanted on the wall of the uterus during embryonic development?

1.		2.
3.		4.

64.

Leydig cells:

1.	Are present in seminiferous tubules and secrete androgens
2.	Are present in seminiferous tubules and help in the maturation of sperms
3.	Are present in interstitial space and secrete androgens
4.	Are present in interstitial space and help in the maturation of sperms

65.

Differentiation of organs and tissues in a developing organism is associated with:
1. developmental mutations
2. differential expression of genes
3. lethal mutations
4. deletion of a gene

66. If the population pyramid of an associated population has an extremely broad base, it is:

1.	a rapidly expanding population
2.	a stable population
3.	a population where there were more old individuals than young individuals
4.	a population with more males than females

67. The 'Inheritance of blood groups' in humans is not an example of:

(a)	Dominance
(b)	Co-dominance
(c)	Multiple allelism
(d)	Incomplete dominance
(e)	Polygenic inheritance

1. (a) and (b) only
2. (c), (d) and (e) only
3. (d) and (e) only
4. (b), (c) and (d) only

68.

The impact of immigration on population density is:

1.	Negative
2.	Both positive and negative
3.	Neutralized by natality
4.	Positive

69.

The beak of the original variety of Darwin finches was adapted for:
1. Seed-eating
2. Nectar sucking
3. Insect eating
4. Piercing hardwood on stem trunks

70. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	Disease	Mode of transmission
1.	Typhoid	Contaminated food and water
2.	Genital warts	Sexual contact
3.	Ascariasis	Vector-borne
4.	Common cold	Droplet

71. What is not correct regarding the pathogenesis of AIDS in humans?

I:	HIV first enters into the macrophages.
II:	Macrophages are used by HIV as a factory to produce more virus particles.
III:	The viral cDNA does not get integrated into any cells in the human body.
IV:	HIV also enters the T-helper cells and destroys them.
V:	The anti-retroviral treatment for AIDS is completely curative.

1.	All except V	2.	Only III and V
3.	Only I, III and IV	4.	All

72.

Which of the following vaccines has been produced by recombinant DNA technology?

1.	Oral polio vaccine	2.	Bacillus Calmette–Guérin vaccine
3.	DPT vaccine	4.	Hepatitis B vaccine

73.

Which cells are critical for an adequate cell-mediated and humoral immune response in human beings?

1.	NK cells	2.	T helper cells
3.	Plasma cells	4.	Myeloma cells

74. Which of the following is a hormone releasing Intra Uterine Device?

1.	DMPA	2.	Multiload 375
3.	Lippes loop	4.	Progestasert

75. In the given figure of pBR322, A, B and C are respectively the recognition sequences for:

	A	B	C
1.	Pst I	EcoR I	BamH I
2.	Pst II	EcoR I	BamH I
3.	Pst I	Hind II	BamH I
4.	Pst I	EcoR I	Hind III

76. The fungal Genus not responsible for causing ringworm in humans will be:
1. Microsporum
2. Trichophyton
3. Epidermophyton
4. Trichoderma

77.

Ringworm in humans is caused by:

1.	bacteria	2.	fungi
3.	nematodes	4.	viruses

78. The figure below is the diagrammatic representation of the E.coli vector pBR 322. Which one of the given options correctly identifies its certain components (s)?

1. Ori-original restriction enzyme
2. Rop-reduced osmotic pressure
3. Hind III, Eco RI-selectable markers
4. Amp^R, teti^R-antibiotic resistance genes

79.

In the ‘test–tube baby’ procedure:

1.	Fertilization is in-vitro but embryo development is in-vivo
2.	Fertilization is in-vivo but embryo development is in-vitro
3.	Both fertilization and embryo development are in-vitro
4.	Both fertilization and embryo development are in-vivo

80.

Natural methods for contraception work on the principle of:

1.	Preventing fertilization
2.	Preventing implantation
3.	Preventing ovulation
4.	Preventing embryo development

81. A single strand of nucleic acid tagged with a radioactive molecule is called:
1. Vector
2. Selectable marker
3. Plasmid
4. Probe

82. The plasmid of which of the following was used for the production of recombinant human insulin?
1. Yeast
2. Escherichia coli
3. Salmonella typhimurium
4. Agrobacterium tumefaciens

83.

ELISA is based on the principle of:

1.	Complementary hybridization of nucleic acids
2.	Antigen-antibody interaction
3.	Clonal selection
4.	Southern blot

84.

Percentage of energy transferred to the higher tropic level in a food chain is:

1.	1%	2.	10%
3.	90%	4.	100%

85. Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in an ecosystem is called:

1.	Stratification	2.	Scarification
3.	Standing crop	4.	Standing state

Zoology - Section B

86.

Which of the following cannot be inferred from the information given in the following diagram?

1.	The DNA from the crime scene matches that of individual B
2.	VNTRs are hypervariable
3.	The larger fragments remain near the point of introduction in the gel electrophoresis
4.	The smaller chromosomes in the human genome have smaller repeats of VNTR

87.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	Organism	Length of DNA
1.	Bacteriophage ϕ 174	5386 base pairs
2.	Bacteriophage Lambda	48502 base pairs
3.	Escherichia coli	4 × 10⁶ base pairs
4.	Human beings	3.3 × 10⁹ base pairs

88.

Assertion(A):	It is possible to produce a human protein inside a bacteria, using recombinant DNA technology.
Reason (R):	Nucleic acid is the genetic material of all organisms without exception.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is False and (R) is True.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

89.

Assertion (A):	Biolistics is generally preferred over Agrobacterium mediation to engineer [genetically transform] crops, such as cereals.
Reason (R):	Agrobacterium delivers a piece of DNA known as ‘T-DNA’ to transform normal plant cells into a tumor and directs these tumor cells to produce the chemicals required by the pathogen.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	(A) is False and (R) is True.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

90.

Sickle cell anaemia is:

1.	an autosomal linked dominant trait
2.	caused by substitution of valine by glutamic acid in the globin chain of haemoglobin
3.	caused by a change in base pair of DNA
4.	characterized by elongated sickle like RBCs with a nucleus

91. A male with genotype AABBCC and a very dark complexion mates with a female with genotype aabbcc and a very fair complexion. What is the probability of their progeny being born with an intermediate skin colour type?
1. 6/64
2. 15/64
3. 20/64
4. 1/64

92. The following figure shows the determination of sex by chromosomal differences. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?

A
B

1.	Only A	2.	Only B
3.	Both A and B	4.	Neither A nor B

93. How many of the given statements regarding HIV/AIDS are true?

I.	AIDS is a congenital disease
II.	Syndrome means a group of symptoms
III.	HIV is a rotavirus
IV.	HIV does not have an envelope
V.	HIV can be transmitted by an infected mother to her child through placenta

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

94.

Consider the following statements:

I:	RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense.
II:	It involves the silencing of a specific mRNA due to complementary dsDNA molecules that prevent the translation of mRNA.
III:	Fire and Mello got the Nobel Prize for the discovery of RNAi.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

95. The abuse of anabolic steroids by human males can lead to the development of all the following except:

1.	A decrease in the size of prostate gland
2.	depression
3.	decreased sperm production
4.	kidney and liver dysfunction

96. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	Removal of a keystone species from a community affects community structure significantly.
Reason (R):	Keystone species are always the apex predators in an ecosystem.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

97.

Artificial selection to obtain cows yielding higher milk output represents:

1.	Directional, as it pushes the mean of the character in one direction
2.	Disruptive, as it splits the population into two, one yielding higher output and the other lower output
3.	Stabilizing followed by disruptive, as it stabilizes the population to produce higher-yielding cows
4.	Stabilizing selection, as it stabilizes this character in the population

98.

Match each item in column I with one in Column II and select the correct answer from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Monascus purpureus	P	Thrombolytic
B	Trichoderma polysporum	Q	Immunosuppressant
C	Streptococcus pyogenes	R	Antibiotics
D	Streptomyces griseus	S	Statins

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1	S	Q	R	P
2	Q	S	P	R
3	Q	S	R	P
4	S	Q	P	R

99.

What induces the completion of the meiotic division of the secondary oocyte?

1.	rupture of the Graafian follicle
2.	insemination
3.	contact of sperm with zona pellucida
4.	entry of sperm into the cytoplasm of the ovum

100. Study the given diagram and select the correct statements:

Statement I:	(a) is released from the ovary during ovulation and has a secondary oocyte.
Statement II:	(b), (c), and (d) show cleavage divisions, and (e) is morula.
Statement III:	(g) is blastocyst and (h) shows implantation.

1. Only Statement I
2. Only Statement I and Statement III
3. Only Statement II and III
4. Statement I, Statement II and Statement III

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