Biology Prodigy Test #5 (Part Test)

Botany - Section A

1.

Taq polymerase is a:

1.	thermostable DNA dependent RNA polymerase.
2.	thermostable DNA dependent DNA polymerase.
3.	thermolabile DNA dependent RNA polymerase.
4.	thermolabile DNA dependent DNA polymerase.

2.

Which one of the following microbes forms a symbiotic association with plants and helps them in their nutrition?
1. Azotobacter
2. Aspergillus
3. Glomus
4. Trichoderma

3.

Asymptote in a logistic growth curve is obtained when:
1. K = N
2. K > N
3. K < N
4. The value of 'r' approaches zero

4.

RNAi is a method for:

1.	amplification of DNA
2.	detecting a gene of interest in a sample of DNA
3.	regulation of gene expression at the level of initiation of transcription
4.	post-transcriptional gene silencing

5.

In the anaerobic sludge digesters during sewage water treatment:

1.	The primary sludge is treated with aerobic microbes and activated sludge is created
2.	The primary sludge is treated with anaerobic microbes and activated sludge is created
3.	The activated sludge is digested by anaerobic microbes producing biogas during the process
4.	The activated sludge is digested by aerobic microbes producing biogas during the process

6. Exploration of molecular, genetic, and species level diversity for novel products of economic importance is known as:
1. Biopiracy
2. Bioenergetics
3. Bioremediation
4. Bioprospecting

7.

Which of the following is not a reason that accounts for greater biodiversity of tropics?

1.	availability of more solar energy
2.	more niche specialization
3.	more time for species diversification
4.	large seasonal variations in environmental factors

8. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Temperature and soil moisture are the most important climatic factors that regulate decomposition through their effects on the activities of soil microbes.
Reason (R):	Temperature and soil moisture affect the activities of soil microbes.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

9.

An orchid growing as an epiphyte on a mango branch is an example of:

1.	Ectoparasitism	2.	Endopararsitism
3.	Commensalism	4.	Mutualism

10.

The rate of decomposition is faster in the ecosystem due to the following factors, except:

1.	Detritus rich in sugars
2.	Warm and moist environment
3.	Presence of aerobic soil microbes
4.	Detritus richer in lignin and chitin

11.

The free-living fungus Trichoderma can be used for:
1. killing insects
2. biological control of plant diseases
3. controlling butterfly caterpillars
4. producing antibiotics

12. All the following are ‘ex-situ’ methods for conservation of biodiversity except:
1. Zoological parks
2. Botanical gardens
3. Wildlife safari parks
4. National parks

13.

When population density is plotted against time, the exponential growth curve is:

1.	S shaped	2.	Straight line
3.	J shaped	4.	Hyperbola

14.

The colonies of recombinant bacteria appear white because of:

1.	Insertional inactivation of alpha-galactosidase in non-recombinant bacteria
2.	Insertional inactivation of beta-galactosidase in recombinant bacteria
3.	Inactivation of glycosidase enzyme in recombinant bacteria
4.	Non-recombinant bacteria containing beta-galactosidase

15. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	India’s share of global biodiversity	P	8.1 %
B	India’s share of world land area	Q	Species area relationship
C	Alexander Humboldt	R	Rivet popper hypothesis
D	Paul Ehrlich	S	2.4 %

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	S	P	Q	R
2.	S	P	R	Q
3.	P	S	Q	R
4.	P	S	R	Q

16.

Which one of the following is related to Ex-situ conservation of threatened animals and plants?
1. Biodiversity hot spots
2. Amazon rainforest
3. Himalayan region
4. Wildlife safari parks

17.

Biolistics (gene-gun) is suitable for:

1.	Transformation of plant cells
2.	Constructing recombinant DNA by joining with vectors
3.	DNA fingerprinting
4.	Disarming pathogen vectors

18.

Which of the following can be used to induce competence for getting a bacterial cell transformed during rDNA procedures?

1.	A divalent cation	2.	Ethidium bromide
3.	Polyethylene glycol	4.	Anionic proteins

19. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	In general, species diversity increases as we move away from the equator towards the poles.
Statement II:	With very few exceptions, tropics harbour more species than temperate or polar areas.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

20. Increased yield of crop during the green revolution was due to:

I.	Use of improved crop varieties
II.	Use of better management practices
III.	Use of agrochemicals [fertilisers and pesticides]

1.	Only I	2.	Only I and III
3.	Only I and II	4.	I, II and III

21.

Somaclonal variations are:

1.	seen in plants that have been produced by plant tissue culture.
2.	due to environmental factors and have no evolutionary advantage.
3.	induced by mutations and are inherited.
4.	not useful in plant breeding programs.

22. Which of the following is put into anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment?
1. Floating debris
2. Efﬂuents of primary treatment
3. Activated sludge
4. Primary sludge

23. Who, amongst the following, is revered as the father of ecology in India?
1. Gurdev Singh Khush
2. M. S. Swaminathan
3. Ramdeo Misra
4. Salim Ali

24.

World Summit on Sustainable Development (2002) was held in:

1.	Brazil	2.	Sweden
3.	Argentina	4.	South Africa

25.

The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by?
1. C. Darwin
2. G. F. Gause
3. MacArthur
4. Verhulst and Pearl

26.

What is the reason for the formation of embryoids from pollen grain in tissue culture medium?

1.	Cellular totipotency	2.	Organogenesis
3.	Double fertilization	4.	Test tube culture

27.

RNA interference involves silencing a specific mRNA by:

1.	interfering with its post transcriptional modification
2.	not allowing the transport of mRNA from nucleus to cytoplasm
3.	a dsRNA that binds to it and prevents its translation
4.	post translational degradation of the protein

28.

A selectable marker is used to:

1.	help in eliminating the non-transformants so that the transformants can be regenerated.
2.	identify the gene for the desired trait in an alien organism.
3.	select a suitable vector for transformation in a specific crop.
4.	mark a gene on a chromosome for isolation using a restriction enzyme.

29.

The ecological pyramids that can never be inverted in a natural ecosystem include:

I:	pyramid of numbers
II:	pyramid of energy in any ecosystem
III:	pyramid of biomass in the sea

1. Only II
2. Only III
3. Only II and III
4. All can be inverted

30.

Which of the following in sewage treatment removes suspended solids?
1. Secondary treatment
2. Primary treatment
3. Sludge treatment
4. Tertiary treatment

31.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Asexual reproduction preserves genetic information while sexual reproduction permits variations.
II:	Traditional hybridization often leads to the inclusion and multiplication of undesirable genes along with the desired genes.
III:	rDNA technology allows us to isolate and introduce only one or a set of desirable genes without introducing undesirable genes in the target organism.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

32.

Which of the following statements is not correct?

1.	The proinsulin has an extra peptide called C-peptide
2.	Functional insulin has A and B chains linked together by hydrogen bonds.
3.	Genetically engineered insulin is produced in E. Coli.
4.	In man, insulin is synthesized as proinsulin.

33.

Sacred groves are especially useful in:
1. preventing soil erosion
2. year-round flow of water in rivers
3. conserving rare and threatened species
4. generating environmental awareness

34.

The greatest biodiversity on the earth is found in:

1.	African grasslands
2.	Amazonian rain forest in South America
3.	Western Ghats in India
4.	Nile delta in Egypt

35.

Somaclones are obtained by:
1. tissue culture
2. plant breeding
3. irradiation
4. genetic engineering

Botany - Section B

36. Consider the two statements:

Assertion (A):	The evolutions of the flower and its pollinator species are tightly linked with one another.
Reason (R):	Plants need the help of animals for pollinating their flowers and dispersing their seeds.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

37.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends of DNA whereas, endonucleases make cuts at specific positions within DNA.
II:	To visualize pure DNA fragments, it is stained with ethidium bromide and seen in UV light.
III:	Plasmids and phage DNA are used as vectors in genetic engineering as they are extrachromosomal DNA molecules.

Which of the above statements are true?

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

38. What percent of the total incident solar radiation is captured by plants?

1.	1 to 5	2.	2 to 10
3.	20 to 30	4.	40 to 60

39. The number of times the recognition sequence of EcoRI is expected to appear in a dsDNA of 10,000 bp length will be:

1.	1	2.	2
3.	4	4.	8

40.

A plasmid has a single recognition sequence for EcoRI. When cut with this enzyme, the number of resultant fragments will be:
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

41. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Heterotrophs generally have high energy conversion efficiencies when compared to those of plants.
Reason (R):	At higher trophic levels, the respiratory costs are dramatically reduced.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (R)
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and but (R) does not correctly explain (A)
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False

42.

A stable community in an ecosystem:

I:	should show a considerable increase in productivity every year
II:	must be either resistant or resilient to occasional man-made and natural disturbances
III:	must be resistant to invasions by alien species

1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct
4. I, II and III are correct

43.

Parthenium hysterophorus:

I:	is also called as carrot grass or the gajar grass.
II:	is a common invasive species in India and came as a contaminant with wheat
III:	produces allelopathic chemicals
IV:	produces pollens that are common cause of allergies in humans

1. Only I, II and III are correct
2. Only I, II and IV are correct
3. Only II, III and IV are correct
4. I, II, III and IV are correct

44. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Conventional breeding is not the answer if we want to increase yield in the existing crop varieties.
Reason (R):	The existing crop varieties have evolved into new species and traditional hybridisation is not possible now.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A).

45.

Azolla is used in the cultivation of:

1.	Maize	2.	Sorghum
3.	Wheat	4.	Rice

46.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding the use of RNAi for creating transgenic tobacco plants resistant to Meloidogyne incognita:

1.	Agrobacterium tumefaciens was used to transform the plant cells
2.	Double-stranded RNA was introduced into the plant cells
3.	Double-stranded RNA was formed in the plant cells that initiated RNAi
4.	A specific mRNA of the nematode was silenced with the help of dsRNA

47. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	The large holes in ‘Swiss cheese’ are due to production of a large amount of CO₂ by a bacterium named Propionibacterium shermanii.
Statement II:	The ‘Roquefort cheese’ are ripened by growing a specific bacteria on them, which gives them a particular flavour.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
4.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct

48.

The plantlets produced during plant tissue culture are called somaclones because:

1.	They can be produced in a very short span of time
2.	They are the result of the somatic hybridization of two cells
3.	The gametes develop parthenogenetically to produce genetically identical plantlets
4.	They are genetically identical to the original plant from which they were grown

49.

Consider the following statements:

I:	Trophic level in an ecosystem represents a functional level, not a species as such.
II:	Saprophytes are accorded the position of a top consumer in an ecosystem.
III:	A species can occupy more than one trophic level in the same ecosystem at the same time.

Which of the above statements are true?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II, and III

50.

Which one of the following pairs of organisms are exotic species introduced in India?
1. Ficus religiosa. Lantana camara
2. Lantana camara, Water hyacinth
3. Water hyacinth, Prosopis cineraria
4. Nile perch, Ficus religiosa

Zoology - Section A

51. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) shown below and select the right option giving their source:

(a)
(b)

	Molecule	Source	Use
1.	(a) Cocaine	Erythroxylum coca	Accelerates the transport of dopamine
2.	(b) Heroin	Cannabis Sativa	Depressant and slows down body functions
3.	(b) Cannabinoid	Atropa belladonna	Produces hallucinations
4.	(a) Morphine	Papaver somniferum	Sedative and painkiller

52. Which of the following is correct for r-selected species?
1. Large number of progeny with small size
2. Large number of progeny with large size
3. Small number of progeny with small size
4. Small number of progeny with large size

53. Niche of an organism includes:

I:	range of conditions that it can tolerate
II:	diversity in the resources it utilises
III:	its distinct functional role in the ecological system

1. Only I
2. Only III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

54. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Biological response modifiers like alpha interferon can help detection and destruction of tumour cells by the immune system.
Reason (R):	Such biological response modifiers activate the immune system of the patient.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

55. Consider the two given statements:

Statement I:	Age structure can indicate whether a population is increasing, stable, or declining.
Statement II:	In general terms, a population with a very broad base would be expected to be stable.

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

56.

A host cell normally does not take up a foreign DNA until it has been made competent to do so. This is because:

1.	DNA is a hydrophilic molecule
2.	DNA is a very large molecule
3.	there are no receptors for DNA on the cell membrane
4.	DNA is an inert molecule

57. The given figure shows the chemical structure of a commonly abused drug. This drug:

1.	causes hallucinations in low doses
2.	is derived from the Indian hemp plant
3.	is sometimes clinically used as a pain killer
4.	is a CNS stimulant

58.

A cloning vector has two antibiotic resistance genes: tetracycline and ampicillin. A foreign DNA was inserted into the tetracycline gene. Non-recombinant transformants would survive on the medium containing:

1.	ampicillin but not tetracycline
2.	tetracycline but not ampicillin
3.	both tetracycline and ampicillin
4.	neither tetracycline nor ampicillin

59. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in an ecosystem is called standing state.
Statement II:	In an ecosystem, each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called as the standing crop.

1.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
2.	Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
3.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

60.

Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened species in viable and fertile conditions can be referred to as:

1.	Advanced ex-situ conservation of biodiversity
2.	In situ conservation by sacred groves
3.	In situ cryo-conservation of biodiversity
4.	In situ conservation of biodiversity

61.

Secondary lymphoid organs:

1.	Are those where immature lymphocytes differentiate
2.	Provide a site of interaction between lymphocytes and antigens
3.	Are formed after birth
4.	Are bone marrow and MALT

62.

A foetus receiving some antibodies from mother through placenta is an example of:

1.	Naturally acquired active immunity
2.	Artificially acquired active immunity
3.	Artificially acquired passive immunity
4.	Naturally acquired passive immunity

63.

The Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992 was called:

1.	for immediate steps to discontinue the use of CFCs that were damaging the ozone layer
2.	to reduce CO₂ emissions and global warming
3.	for the conservation of biodiversity and sustainable utilization of its benefits
4.	to assess the threat posed to native species by invasive weed species

64. Symptoms like constipation, abdominal pain and cramps, stools with excess mucous and blood clots are commonly seen in:

1.	Amoebic dysentery	2.	Ascariasis
3.	Typhoid	4.	Cholera

65. Transgenic animals are the animals that:

1.	have had their DNA manipulated to possess and express an extra [foreign] gene.
2.	are genetically modified with the use of foreign genes from a sexually compatible donor organism.
3.	are produced by interspecific hybridisation.
4.	are produced by inbreeding.

66.

Carnivorous animals - lions and leopards, occupy the same niche but lions predate mostly larger animals and leopards take smaller ones. This mechanism of competition is referred to as:

1.	Character displacement	2.	Altruism
3.	Resource partitioning	4.	Competitive exclusion

67.

MALT constitutes about _______ percent of the lymphoid tissue in the human body.

1.	20%	2.	70%
3.	10%	4.	50%

68.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair regarding Plasmodium, the protozoan responsible for causing malaria in humans:

1.	Cause of malignant tertian malaria	Plasmodium falciparum
2.	Paroxysm [clinical features] of malaria	Release of hemozoin on rupture of RBCs
3.	Fertilization during the life cycle	Gut of female anopheles
4.	Infective stage to mankind	Trophozoites

69.

Match the drugs in Column I with their correct attributes given in Column II and select the correct answer from the codes given:

	Drug		Attribute
A	Opioids	P	Hallucinogenic at high doses
B	Cannabinoids	Q	Highly effective painkiller
C	Cocaine	R	Can cause cardiovascular side effects
D	Nicotine	S	Stimulates adrenal medulla

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	Q	R	S	P
2.	R	Q	P	S
3.	Q	R	P	S
4.	R	Q	S	P

70. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Morphine	P	Interferes with dopamine transport
B	Alcohol	Q	Causes release of adrenaline and noradrenaline
C	Nicotine	R	Cirrhosis of liver
D	Cocaine	S	Pain killer

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	S	R	Q	P
2.	S	R	P	Q
3.	R	S	Q	P
4.	R	S	P	Q

71.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

1.	Patients, who have undergone surgery are given cannabinoids to relieve pain
2.	Benign tumours show the property of metastasis
3.	Heroin accelerates body functions
4.	Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis

72.

Which one of the following statements is correct with respect to immunity?

1.	The antibodies against smallpox pathogens are produced by T-lymphocytes
2.	Antibodies are protein molecules each of which has four light chains
3.	Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B-lymphocytes
4.	Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat the bite by a viper snake

73. If a plasmid is to be used as a cloning vector, the most important feature which must be present in it is:

1.	Origin of replication (Ori)
2.	Presence of a selectable marker
3.	Presence of sites for restriction endonuclease
4.	Being linear rather than circular

74.

A and B in pBR322, shown in the diagram given below, respectively represent recognition sequences of:

1.	BamH I and Sma I	2.	Hind II and Sma I
3.	BamH I and Sal I	4.	Sal I and Hind I

75.

Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	ADA deficiency	P	Plasmid of E.coli used as vector
B	Production of human insulin	Q	Human protein enriched milk
C	Transgenic cow	R	Retroviral vector
D	Transgenic sheep	S	Alpha-1-antitrypsin

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	R	Q	S
2.	R	P	S	Q
3.	P	R	S	Q
4.	R	P	Q	S

76.

With regard to insulin, choose the correct options:

(a)	C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
(b)	The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide.
(c)	The pro-insulin has C-peptide.
(d)	A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(a), (c) and (d) only	2.	(a) and (d) Only
3.	(b) and (d) only	4.	(b) and (c) only

77. Consider the given two statements:

Assertion (A):	Over 95 per cent of all existing transgenic animals are mice.
Reason (R):	GEAC does not allow research on any other animal.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not correctly explain (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly explains (A).
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

78. What was used to deliver the normal copy of gene in the gene therapy trials for ADA deficiency?
1. Microinjection
2. Biolistics
3. Retrovirus
4. Liposomes

79. The main challenge for the production of insulin using rDNA techniques was:

1.	culturing bacteria containing recombinant DNA in labs
2.	finding suitable restriction enzymes to cut human DNA
3.	isolation of DNA in pure form from a human cell
4.	getting insulin assembled into a mature form

80. For effective treatment of the disease, early diagnosis and understanding of its pathophysiology is very important. Which of the following molecular diagnostic techniques is very useful for early detection?

1.	ELISA Technique	2.	Hybridization Technique
3.	Western Blotting Technique	4.	Southern Blotting Technique

81.

The genetic defect-Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by:

1.	periodic infusion of genetically engineered lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA
2.	administering adenosine deaminase activators
3.	introducing bone marrow cells producing ADA into cells at early embryonic stages
4.	invitro cell culture therapy

82. Which one of the following statements for a pyramid of energy is incorrect, whereas the remaining three are correct?

1.	It shows the energy content of different trophic-level organisms
2.	It is inverted in shape
3.	It is upright in shape
4.	Its base is broad

83.

Of the total incident solar radiation, proportion of PAR is:
1. about 60%
2. about 50%
3. more than 80%
4. about 70%

84.

The vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in a biotic community is known as:

1. divergence
2. stratification
3. zonation
4. pyramid

85. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	Entire biosphere is regarded as a global ecosystem by many ecologists.
Statement II:	The global ecosystem is divided into terrestrial and aquatic ecosystem for convenience.

1.	Only Statement I is correct.
2.	Only Statement II is correct.
3.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
4.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

Zoology - Section B

86.

Assertion (A):	In order to force bacteria to take up the plasmid, the bacterial cells must be ‘competent’ to take up DNA.
Reason (R):	No bacteria have natural competence.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is False and (R) is True.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

87.

Assertion(A):	For the multiplication of any alien piece of DNA in an organism, it needs to be a part of a chromosome.
Reason(R):	Chromosomes are threadlike structures made of protein and a single molecule of DNA that serve to carry the genomic information from cell to cell.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	(A) is False and (R) is True.

88. Statements related to human Insulin are given below. Which statement(s) is/are correct about genetically engineered Insulin?

(a)	Pro-hormone insulin contains extra stretch of C- peptide
(b)	A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were produced separately in E.coli, extracted and combined by creating disulphide bond between them.
(c)	Insulin used for treating Diabetes was extracted from Cattles and Pigs.
(d)	Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional hormone.
(e)	Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.	(c), (d) and (e) only	2.	(a), (b) and (d) only
3.	(b) only	4.	(c) and (d) only

89.

Consider the given statements regarding competition amongst organisms:

I:	Only related species can compete for the same resource
II:	Competition occurs only when the resources are limiting

The correct statement/s is/are:

1.	I alone	2.	II alone
3.	Both I and II	4.	Neither I nor II

90. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	If a person is infected with some deadly microbes to which a quick immune response is required as in tetanus, we need to directly inject the preformed antibodies or antitoxin.
Reason (R):	This type of immunization is called passive immunization.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are False
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not explain (A).
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains (A).

91.

Assertion (A):	The thymus and the bone marrow constitute the primary lymphoid organs.
Reason (R):	The thymus and the bone marrow are the sites of lymphocyte activation by antigens.

1.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

92.

Assertion (A):	Symptoms of amoebic dysentery include stools with excess mucous and blood clots.
Reason (R):	Enatamoeba histolytica is a protozoan parasite in the large intestine of human.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

93.

In the given pie chart showing the global biodiversity of vertebrates, the Amphibians and the Birds are respectively represented by:

1.	B and D	2.	A and C
3.	A and B	4.	D and B

94.

Assertion (A):	The type of malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum is called malignant.
Reason (R):	There is no known cure for infection caused by Plasmodium falciparum.

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

95. Which of the following is the only floating national park in the world?

1.	Keibul Lamjao National Park, Manipur
2.	Bandhavgarh National Park, Madhya Pradesh
3.	Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary.
4.	Dachigam National Park, Jammu and Kashmir

96. The consumers that feed on herbivores are correctly described as:
1. Primary producers
2. Primary consumers
3. Secondary carnivores
4. Secondary consumers

97.

What is true about the population growth curves shown in the figure given below:

I:	Curve a is seen when resources are not limiting
II:	Curve b is seen when resources are limiting
III:	[K-N]/K is the carrying capacity

1.	I and II only	2.	I and III only
3.	II and III only	4.	I, II, and III

98.

Consider the two statements:

I:	Food chains rarely extend for more than 4 or 5 levels.
II:	Consumers at each level convert, on an average, only about 10% of the chemical energy in their food to their own organic tissue.

1. Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2. Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3. Only I is correct.
4. Both I and II are incorrect.

99. Cryptic colouration is:
1. warning colouration by poisonous organisms.
2. protective resemblance with the environment.
3. lack of effect of exposure of sunlight on skin colour.
4. contrasting skin colours in males and females of a species.

100.

A patient brought to a hospital with myocardial infarction is normally immediately given:

1.	penicillin	2.	streptokinase
3.	cyclosporin-A	4.	statins

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