Full Syllabus Test # 12 (Final Dash) (Old NCERT)

Biology I - Section A

1. Niche of an organism includes:

I:	range of conditions that it can tolerate
II:	diversity in the resources it utilises
III:	its distinct functional role in the ecological system

1. Only I
2. Only III
3. Only II and III
4. I, II and III

2.

The meristem that helps grasses regenerate parts removed by the grazing herbivores is the:

1.	Shoot apical meristem	2.	Root apical meristem
3.	Intercalary meristem	4.	Lateral meristem

3. Consider the two statements:

I:	Deficiency symptoms of nitrogen, potassium and magnesium are visible first in the senescent leaves.
II:	These elements are a part of the structural component of the cell and hence are not easily released.

1.	Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3.	I is correct and II is incorrect
4.	I is incorrect and II is correct

4.

Ecological succession leads to mesic conditions in:

I:	Hydrarch succession
II:	Xerarch succession

1. Both I and II
2. Only I
3. Only II
4. Neither I nor II

5.

The detritus food chain:

I:	begins with dead organic matter
II:	is the major conduit of energy flow in aquatic ecosystem.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

6.

The greatest contribution of root pressure in water transport in plants most likely is that it:

1.	pushes water to the top at night
2.	pushes water to the top of the plant when the rate of transpiration is low
3.	re-establishes the continuous chain of water molecules in the xylem
4.	pushes water into the endodermal cells changing the transport from apoplast to symplast

7.

Arrange the following steps of a plant breeding program in a correct chronological manner:

I.	Selection and testing of superior recombinants
II.	Collection of variability
III.	Cross hybridisation among the selected parents
IV.	Evaluation and selection of parents
V.	Testing, release, and commercialisation of new cultivars

1.	II, IV, I, III, V	2.	IV, I, II, III, V
3.	II, IV, III, I, V	4.	IV, III, II, I, V

8.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	Column I	Column II
1.	Sonalika and Kalyan Sona	Improved varieties of wheat
2.	Jaya and Ratna	Improved varieties of maize
3	Saccharum Barberi	Poor sugar content and yield
4.	Saccharum officinarum	High sugar content and thick stems

9.

Ubiquinone receives reducing equivalents via:

I. Complex I

II. Complex II

III. Complex III

1.	Only I	2.	Only I and II
3.	Only I and III	4.	I, II and III

10.

Wind-pollinated flowers are characterized by the following, except:

1.	Light and non-sticky pollen grains
2.	Well-exposed stamens
3.	Many ovules in each ovary
4.	Large, often-feathery stigma

11.

Identify the correct statements regarding G₁ phase of the cell cycle:

I:	It is the post-mitotic gap phase
II:	The cell is metabolically active and grows continuously
III:	Cell replicates its DNA

1.	Only II	2.	I and II only
3.	Only I	4.	I, II and III

12.

When a threatened plant needs urgent measures to save it from extinction, the desirable approach is:

1.	in-situ conservation	2.	ex-situ conservation
3.	cryopreservation	4.	biopreservation

13.

The central dogma of molecular biology was proposed by:

1.	Francis Crick	2.	James Watson
3.	Rosalind Franklin	4.	Erwin Chargaff

14. Identify the incorrect statement/s:

Statement I:	Stamens are epipetalous in the flowers of lily.
Statement II:	Diadelphous stamen are seen in citrus.
Statement III:	A sterile stamen is called as staminate.

1. Only Statement I and Statement II
2. Only Statement III
3. Statement I, Statement II and Statement III
4. Only Statement I and Statement III

15.

Scutellum is:

1.	shield shaped cotyledon in monocotyledons
2.	protein layer in the outer endosperm in monocotyledons
3.	starchy endosperm of dicotyledons
4.	stony hard seed coat in some seeds

16.

Fruit juices can be clarified with the use of:

1.	Lipases	2.	Papain
3.	Pectinase and protease	4.	Glucoamylase

17.

The work of which of the following scientists led to the establishment of the discipline of modern biotechnology?

1.	Banting and Best	2.	Bolivar and Rodriguez
3.	Hershey and Chase	4.	Cohen and Boyer

18.

C. B. van Niel proved that:

1.	Plants produce glucose when they grow.
2.	Blue and red light are effective for photosynthesis.
3.	It is only the green parts of the plants that could release oxygen.
4.	Hydrogen from a suitable oxidizable compound reduces carbon dioxide to carbohydrates.

19.

Phloem fibers [bast fibers] are:

1.	made up of collenchyma and generally not seen in primary phloem
2.	made up of collenchyma and generally not seen in secondary phloem
3.	made up of sclerenchyma and generally not seen in primary phloem
4.	made up of sclerenchyma and generally not seen in secondary phloem

20. Consider the given two statements:

Statement 1:	Certain amino acids are essential for our health.
Statement 2:	Only such amino acids are used to make proteins in our body according to our own genetic code.

1.	Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 correctly explains Statement 1
2.	Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 does not correctly explain Statement 1
3.	Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect
4.	Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct

21. Which of the following does not relate to heterotrophic bacteria?

1.	They are important decomposers.
2.	They are helpful in making curd from milk, production of antibiotics and fixing nitrogen in legume roots.
3.	Some are pathogens causing damage to human beings, crops, farm animals and pets.
4.	Almost all help in recycling nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, iron and sulphur.

22.

The Indian Botanical Garden and the National Botanical Research Institute are located respectively at:

1. Pune and Howrah	2. Howrah and Lucknow
3. Darjeeling and Lucknow	4. Simla and Dehradun

23.

Regarding Marchantia:

I:	The thallus is dorsi-ventral and closely appressed to the substrate.
II:	The plant is monoecious.

1.	Both I and II are incorrect
2.	Only I is incorrect
3.	Only I is correct
4.	Both I and II are correct

24. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used to design novel:
1. Biofertilizers
2. Biometallurgic techniques
3. Biomineralization processes
4. Bioinsecticidal plants

25.

Regarding the gradients of biodiversity:

I:	As we move from poles to the equator, broadly speaking, biodiversity decreases.
II:	There is an increase in species diversity from lower to higher altitudes.

1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

26.

An increase in concentration of the intoxicant at successive trophic levels is known as:

1.	Eutrophication	2.	Biomagnification
3.	Bioremediation	4.	Biofortification

27.

In the anaerobic sludge digesters during sewage water treatment:

1.	The primary sludge is treated with aerobic microbes and activated sludge is created
2.	The primary sludge is treated with anaerobic microbes and activated sludge is created
3.	The activated sludge is digested by anaerobic microbes producing biogas during the process
4.	The activated sludge is digested by aerobic microbes producing biogas during the process

28.

The correct sequence of flow of electrons in the light reaction is

1.	PSII, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PS I, ferredoxin
2.	PSI, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PS II, ferredoxin
3.	PSI, ferredoxin, PS II,
4.	PSI, plastoquinone, cytochromes, PS II, ferredoxin

29. Which radioactive isotope was used by Meselson and Stahl to label DNA in their experiment?
1. ³⁵S
2. ¹⁵N
3. ³²P
4. None

30. A polysome is:

1.	several mRNA molecules attached to a ribosome
2.	several ribosomes attached to a single mRNA
3.	the three major types of cellular RNAs attached to an mRNA molecule
4.	many ribosomes attached to the surface of endoplasmic reticulum

31.

Callus from internodal segments of tobacco stem gets proliferated only if in addition to one of the following – extracts of vascular tissues, yeast extract, coconut milk or DNA, the nutrient medium also contains:

1.	Auxins	2.	Gibberellins
3.	ABA	4.	Ethylene

32.

Consider the two statements:

I:	Organisms exhibiting external fertilisation show great synchrony between the sexes.
II:	Such organisms release a large number of gametes into the surrounding medium (water).

1.	Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3.	I is correct but II is incorrect.
4.	Both I and II are incorrect.

33.

A plant, on repeated self-pollination, preserves the trait expressed for many generations. Such a plant is said to be:

1.	Panmictic	2.	Homologous
3.	Apomictic	4.	Pure line

34.

In a fertilised embryo sac, the haploid, diploid, and triploid structures are:

1.	Synergid, zygote, and primary endosperm nucleus
2.	Synergid, antipodal and polar nuclei
3.	Antipodal, synergid, and primary endosperm nucleus
4.	Synergid, polar nuclei and zygote.

35.

Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

	Population interaction	Species A	Species B
1.	Mutualism	+	+
2.	Predation	+	-
3.	Parasitism	-	-
4.	Commensalism	+	0

Biology I - Section B

36. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	In Cycas, the pinnate leaves persist for a few years.
Statement II:	In conifers, the needle-like leaves reduce the surface area helping to reduce water loss.

1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
3. Statement I and Statement II are correct
4. Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

37.

Trace the correct path of water from the soil through the plant to the atmosphere:

1.	endodermis- cortex - epidermis - vessel elements - intercellular spaces in mesophyll - stomata.
2.	epidermis - cortex - Casparian strip - endodermis - sieve cells - intercellular spaces in the mesophyll - stomata.
3.	Casparian strip - root hairs - epidermis - cortex - xylem - endodermis - intercellular spaces in mesophyll - stomata.
4.	root hairs - cortex - endodermis - vessel elements - intercellular spaces in mesophyll - stomata.

38. In Hatch and Slack pathway:

I:	The C₄ acid OAA is formed in the mesophyll cells.
II:	Malic acid or aspartic acid are transported to the bundle sheath cells.
III:	C₄ acids are broken down to release carbon dioxide and a 3 carbon molecule in mesophyll cells.
IV:	The 3 carbon molecule is transported back to the bundle sheath cell where it is converted to PEP again.

1.	Only I and II are correct
2.	II, III and IV are incorrect
3.	Only I, II and III are correct
4.	I, II, III and IV are correct

39. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Saprophytes play a vital role in the ecosystem.
Reason (R):	Saprophytes are accorded the highest trophic level in a food chain or a food web.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are False.

40.

The number of the correct statements regarding organic farming, amongst the following, are:

I:	Organic farming encourages crop diversity and often employs polyculture.
II:	Organic farming relies heavily on the natural breakdown of organic matter.
III:	Organic weed management promotes weed elimination, rather than weed suppression
IV:	Pest are used under Integrated Pest Management
V:	Raising livestock and poultry, for meat, dairy and eggs, is another traditional farming activity that complements growing.
VI:	It promotes use of genetically engineered plants and animals.

1. Three
2. Four
3. Five
4. Six

41.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding the use of RNAi for creating transgenic tobacco plants resistant to Meloidogyne incognita:

1.	Agrobacterium tumefaciens was used to transform the plant cells
2.	Double-stranded RNA was introduced into the plant cells
3.	Double-stranded RNA was formed in the plant cells that initiated RNAi
4.	A specific mRNA of the nematode was silenced with the help of dsRNA

42.

Match each item in Column-I (Protist) with one in Column-II (Characteristic) and select the correct option:

	Column-I (Protist)		Column-II (Characteristic)
A.	Chrysophytes	P.	Plasmodium
B.	Dinoflagellates	Q.	Chief producers in the ocean
C.	Euglenoids	R.	Stiff cellulose plates in cell wall on outer surface
D.	Slime moulds	S.	Two flagella, one long and one short

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	R	Q	S	P
2.	Q	S	P	R
3.	Q	R	S	P
4.	R	S	Q	P

43.

Auxins:

I:	promote flowering in pineapples
II:	induce parthenocarpy in tomatoes
III:	like 2,4-D kill monocot weeds
IV:	control xylem differentiation

1.	Only I and II are correct
2.	Only III is incorrect
3.	I, II, III and IV are correct
4.	Only I and IV are incorrect

44. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	A piece of DNA if needed to be propagated during recombinant DNA procedures requires a vector.
Reason (R):	The vectors provide the origin of replication.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

45. Phellogen cuts cells on both sides where:

1.	outer cells differentiate into cork or phelloderm and inner cells differentiate into secondary cortex or phellem
2.	inner cells differentiate into cork or phelloderm and outer cells differentiate into secondary cortex or phellem
3.	outer cells differentiate into cork or phellem and inner cells differentiate into secondary cortex or phelloderm
4.	inner cells differentiate into cork or phellem and outer cells differentiate into secondary cortex or phelloderm

46. How many of the given statements regarding various modifications in leaves are correct?

I.	Leaves are modified into tendrils for climbing as in pea.
II.	Leaves are modified into spines for defence as in cacti.
III.	The leaves of onion and garlic store food.
IV.	In Australian acacia, petioles expand, become green and synthesize food.
V.	The trapping structure of venus fly trap and pitcher of pitcher plant are modified leaves.

1.	2	2.	3
3.	4	4.	5

47. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Lichens are commonly the pioneer species during primary succession on rocks.
Reason (R):	Lichens are able to secrete acids to dissolve rocks.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is true but (R) is false.
4.	Both (A) and (R) are false.

48.

From the statements given below, choose the option that is true for a typical female gametophyte of a flowering plant:

I:	It is 8-nucleate and 7-celled at maturity
II:	It is free-nuclear during the development
III:	It is situated inside the integument but outside the nucellus
IV:	It has an egg apparatus situated at the chalazal end

1.	I and IV	2.	II and III
3.	I and II	4.	II and IV

49. Consider the two statements:

Statement I:	The respiratory pathway is better regarded as an amphibolic pathway rather than only a catabolic pathway.
Statement II:	The respiratory pathway is involved in both anabolism and catabolism.

1.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3.	Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

50.

Consider the two statements:

I:	It is desirable to use restriction enzymes produce 'sticky ends' for cloning experiments in genetic engineering.
II:	If the donor DNA and the vector DNA are cut by such same restriction endonuclease, ligation of the two is easy.

1.	Both I and II are correct and II explains I
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I
3.	Only I is correct
4.	Both I and II are incorrect

Biology II - Section A

51.

In the ‘test–tube baby’ procedure:

1.	Fertilization is in-vitro but embryo development is in-vivo
2.	Fertilization is in-vivo but embryo development is in-vitro
3.	Both fertilization and embryo development are in-vitro
4.	Both fertilization and embryo development are in-vivo

52. In Ctenophora:

a:	body bears eight external rows of ciliated comb plates, which help in locomotion.
b:	reproduction takes place only by asexual means.
c:	digestion is both extracellular and intracellular.
d:	sexes are separate.

The correct statements are:

1.	a and c only	2.	b and d only
3.	a, b and c only	4.	a, b and d only

53.

The cell junctions in animal tissues that perform the function of cementing to keep neighbouring cells together are known as:

1.	Tight junctions	2.	Adhering junctions
3.	Gap junctions	4.	Desmosomes

54.

Consider the two statements:

I:	Inbreeding is an important strategy in animal breeding experiments.
II:	It exposes recessive harmful genes that are eliminated by selection.

1.	Both I and II are correct and II explains I.
2.	Both I and II are correct but II does not explain I.
3.	Only I is correct.
4.	Both I and II are incorrect.

55. In a resting axonal membrane:

1.	The outer surface possesses a positive charge while its inner surface becomes negatively charged.
2.	The outer surface possesses a negative charge while its inner surface becomes positively charged.
3.	Both the outer and the inner surface are positively charged.
4.	Both the outer and the inner surface are negatively charged.

56.

FSH:

1.	Acts on Sertoli cells and stimulates secretion of some factors that help in spermiogenesis
2.	Acts on Sertoli cells and inhibits secretion of some factors that help in spermiogenesis
3.	Acts on Leydig cells and stimulates secretion of some factors that help in spermiogenesis
4.	Acts on Leydig cells and inhibits secretion of some factors that help in spermiogenesis

57. Histones are rich in amino acids:
1. Arginine and Lysine
2. Arginine and Leucine
3. Arginine and Isoleucine
4. Aspartate and Glutamate

58. A glenoid cavity is:

1.	seen in scapula and articulates with head of humerus
2.	seen in coxal bone and articulates with head of femur
3.	seen in clavicle and articulates with sternum
4.	seen in femur and articulates with patella

59.

In animal cells, steroidal hormones are synthesized in the:

1.	Rough endoplasmic reticulum
2.	Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
3.	Golgi apparatus
4.	Lysosomes

60.

Which of the following diseases is/are correctly matched with their modes of transmission?

	Disease/Infection	Mode of transmission
I.	Ascariasis	Contaminated food and water
II.	Elephantiasis	Vector-borne
III.	Ringworm	Direct contact

Options:

1.	Only I and II	2.	Only I and III
3.	Only II and III	4.	I, II and III

61.

Organisms prefer sexual mode of reproduction in adverse conditions because:

1.	It leads to a rapid proliferation of numbers
2.	It requires two individuals that can support the progeny
3.	It is less energy consuming than the asexual mode of reproduction
4.	It provides protection and increases variations that may help progeny to survive

62. The first amino acid in the primary structure of a protein is termed as:
1. C – terminus amino acid
2. N – terminus amino acid
3. An imino acid
4. Alpha amino acid

63.

Identify the correct statements from the following:

I:	ANF is secreted by the right atrium of heart and causes vasodilation
II:	Erythropoietin is secreted by kidney and stimulates bone marrow to produce RBC
III:	Insulin-like growth factors are secreted by liver and play an important role in childhood growth, and has anabolic effects in adults

1.	Only I and II	2.	Only I and III
3.	Only II and III	4.	I, II and III

64.

In general, with every 10^oC rise in the temperature [in the range 0^oC to 40^oC], the rate of enzyme catalyzed reaction:
1. Becomes half
2. Gets doubled
3. Remains same
4. There is no such correlation in general

65.

Consider three sample areas with the following composition:

Sample area I:	has three species of birds, two are represented by one individual each and the third by four individuals
Sample area II:	has three species of birds, each represented by two individuals
Sample area III:	has a species of insects, a species of mammals and a species of birds, each with two individuals

Which area will be considered as the most diverse?
1. Sample area I
2. Sample area II
3. Sample area III
4. Sample area II and Sample area III are equally diverse

66.

In humans, the sex of the baby is determined:

1.	At the time of fertilization and by the father
2.	At the time of fertilization and by the mother
3.	At the time of implantation and by the father
4.	At the time of implantation and by the mother

67.

The first drug produced using recombinant DNA technology is used to treat:

1.	haemophilia	2.	dwarfism
3.	immunodeficiency	4.	diabetes

68.

The type of natural selection that operates to eliminate intermediate phenotypes in a population is known as:

1.	Directional selection	2.	Disruptive selection
3.	Stabilizing selection	4.	Reverse selection

69. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I [Organism]		Column II [Osmoregulatory and excretory structure]
A	Flatworms, rotifers, Amphioxus	P	Protonephridia
B	Earthworm	Q	Nephridia
C	Insects	R	Malpighian tubule
D	Prawn	S	Green gland or antennal gland

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	R	S
2.	Q	R	S	P
3.	R	S	P	Q
4.	S	P	Q	R

70.

Proteolytic enzymes found in stomach of an infant include:
I. Rennin
II. Pepsin
III. Tyrpsin
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III

71.

Which of the following equations regarding the calculation of pulmonary capacities would be correct?

1.	IC = IRV – TV	2.	EC = VC – IRV
3.	VC = ERV + IRV	4.	TLC = VC – RV

72. Both heart rate and stroke volume in a human get doubled during exercise. His cardiac output will:
1. double
2. become four times
3. become eight times
4. remain the same

73.

The number of autosomes in a human egg would be:

1.	22	2.	23
3.	1	4.	2

74.

Match each item in Column-I [zones of adrenal cortex] with one in Column-II [hormone produced] and select your answer from the codes given:

	Column-I		Column-II
A.	Zona glomerulosa	a.	Aldosterone
B.	Zona fasciculata	b.	Cortisol
C.	Zona reticularis	c.	Adrenal androgens

Codes:

	A	B	C
1.	a	b	c
2.	a	c	b
3.	b	a	c
4.	b	c	a

75. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Amphibians?

1.	Most have two pairs of limbs and tail is present in some.
2.	Alimentary canal, urinary and reproductive tracts open into a common chamber called cloaca which opens to the exterior.
3.	Respiration is by gills, lungs and through skin.
4.	The heart is two chambered with one atrium and one ventricle.

76.

The Montreal Protocol was signed in 1987 to:

1.	prevent deforestation around the world
2.	control the emission of ozone-depleting substances
3.	control the greenhouse gases
4.	prevent hazards from radioactive nuclear wastes

77.

Similar biological structures or sequences in different taxa are homologous if they:

1.	always perform the same function
2.	result from convergent evolution
3.	do not serve any known function
4.	are derived from a common ancestor

78.

DNA is structurally and chemically more stable than RNA because of the following except:

1.	It has thymine instead of uracil
2.	2’ –OH is absent in DNA
3.	It replicates itself based on complementary base pairing
4.	It does not have any catalytic role

79.

The combination pill is taken by a female:

1.	Daily, for a period of 21 days beginning within the first 5 days of the menstrual cycle
2.	On alternate days, for a period of 21 days beginning within the first 5 days of the menstrual cycle
3.	Daily, for a period of 21 days beginning after the end of the menstrual flow
4.	Daily, for a period of 7 days beginning after the end of the menstrual flow

80.

Match the plasma proteins in Column-I with their function in Column-II and select the correct answer from the codes given:

	Column-I		Column-II
A.	Albumins	a.	Hemostasis
B.	Globulins	b.	Transport carriers and immunity
C.	Fibrinogen	c.	Colloid osmotic pressure

Codes:

	A	B	C
1.	a	b	c
2.	a	c	b
3.	b	a	c
4.	c	b	a

81.

As the distance from Z line to Z line decreases, which bands shorten in a sarcomere?

1.	the I band and H band	2.	the I band and A band
3.	the A band and H band	4.	all bands shorten

82.

High altitude acclimatization in humans include all the following except:

1.	Increased RBC production
2.	Increased breathing rate
3.	Increased heart rate
4.	Increased binding affinity of haemoglobin

83.

A foetus receiving some antibodies from mother through placenta is an example of:

1.	Naturally acquired active immunity
2.	Artificially acquired active immunity
3.	Artificially acquired passive immunity
4.	Naturally acquired passive immunity

84.

The underlying basis of the Polymerase Chain Reaction is:

1.	DNA synthesis and hence amplification can occur in a template independent manner.
2.	DNA, being thermostable, can be amplified during the thermal cycle in PCR.
3.	DNA polymerase I can synthesize large amounts of DNA.
4.	PCR allows the direct amplification of DNA even if it is present in minute quantities.

85. The mode of inheritance of the Mendelian disorder shown in the given pedigree chart is most likely:

1. Autosomal recessive
2. Autosomal dominant
3. Sex-linked recessive
4. Sex-linked dominant

Biology II - Section B

86. Match each item in Column I with one in Column II and select the correct match from the codes given:

	Column I		Column II
A	Myasthenia gravis	P	Auto-immune
B	Arthritis	Q	Inflammation of joints
C	Tetany	R	Low calcium in body fluids
D	Osteoporosis	S	Low levels of oestrogen

Codes:

	A	B	C	D
1.	P	Q	R	S
2.	Q	R	S	P
3.	R	S	P	Q
4.	S	P	Q	R

87.

Catalytic Converters:

I:	use expensive metals like Gold & Tungsten as catalysts
II:	convert unburnt hydrocarbons to CO₂ and H₂O, CO to CO₂ and NO to N₂
III:	are deactivated by Lead

1. only I & II are correct
2. only I & III are correct
3. Only II & III are correct
4. I, II & III are correct

88. In cockroach:

I:	Malpighian tubules are lined by glandular and ciliated cells.
II:	Uric acid is the nitrogenous metabolic excretory product.
III:	Fat body, nephrocytes and urecose glands also help in excretion.

1.	Only II is correct
2.	Only I and II are correct
3.	Only II and III are correct
4.	I, II and III are correct

89. Consider the given two statements:

Statement I:	Photopic vision and colour vision is the function of rods in the human eye.
Statement II:	Scotopic [twilight] vision is the function of cones in the human eye.

1.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3.	Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

90.

Identify the incorrect statement regarding antidiuretic hormone (ADH):

1.	It is synthesized by the neurons of the hypothalamus and stored and released from the neurohypophysis.
2.	It binds to receptors on the collecting duct cells and activates a cAMP second messenger system.
3.	It is released during body dehydration conditions and acts on the collecting duct.
4.	ADH is released when osmoreceptors in the hypothalamus sense a decrease in the blood osmolality.

91.

Occasionally, a single gene may express more than one effect. The phenomenon is called:

1.	multiple allelism	2.	mosaicism
3.	pleiotropy	4.	polygeny

92.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

I.	Absorption of simple sugar, alcohol, some water and medicines takes place in stomach
II.	Maximum water absorption occurs in small intestine
III.	Small intestine is the major site of digestion and absorption of food
IV.	Fatty acid and glycerol are absorbed by lacteals
V.	Nothing is absorbed in mouth and large intestine

1. I, IV and V
2. V
3. IV
4. II and III

93.

The number of correct statements regarding hemichordates from the given is:

I:	A stomochord is present in the collar region
II:	Circulation is of open type
III:	Excretory organ is proboscis gland
IV:	Development is indirect

1.	1	2.	2
3.	3	4.	4

94.

Which of the following is incorrect regarding emphysema?

1.	Alveolar walls are damaged
2.	There is an increase in the respiratory surface
3.	Major cause is cigarette smoking
4.	Can be caused by deficiency of Alpha-1-antitrypsin enzyme

95. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	An adapter molecule, that on one hand can read the genetic code and on the other hand can bind to specific amino acids, is required for the translation of proteins.
Reason (R):	Amino acids have no structural specialties to read the code uniquely.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are False.
3.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
4.	(A) is True but (R) is False.

96. Given the following statements about activities in the early earth:

I:	Water vapour, methane, carbon dioxide, and ammonia released from molten mass covered the surface.
II:	The UV rays from the sun broke up water into Hydrogen and Oxygen and the lighter H₂ escaped.
III:	Oxygen combined with ammonia and methane to form water, CO_2, and other gases.
IV:	As it cooled, the water vapour fell as rain, filling all the depressions and forming oceans.

Select the correct statements:
1. Only I, II and III are correct
2. Only I, II and IV are correct
3. Only II, III and IV are correct
4. All are correct

97.

If any protein-encoding gene is expressed in a heterologous host, the protein formed is called:

1.	Recombinant protein	2.	Native protein
3.	Pro-protein	4.	Exotic protein

98. The number of correct statements amongst the given is:

Statement I:	Parasitism has evolved in many taxonomic groups from plants to higher vertebrates.
Statement II:	Many parasites have evolved to be host-specific and both tend to co-evolve.
Statement III:	All parasites have only one primary and one intermediate host.
Statement IV:	Only a few of the parasites harm their hosts.

1.	1	2.	2
3.	3	4.	4

99. In the schematic representation of gametogenesis in humans, what will be the correct description for A- E?

	A	B	C	D	E
1.	First meiotic division	Second Meiotic division	23	First polar body	Second polar body
2.	Mitosis and differentiation	First meiotic division	23	First polar body	Secondary polar body
3.	First meiotic division	Second Meiotic division	46	First polar body	Second polar body
4.	Mitosis and differentiation	First meiotic division	46	First polar body	Secondary polar body

100. What is not correct regarding the pathogenesis of AIDS in humans?

I:	HIV first enters into the macrophages.
II:	Macrophages are used by HIV as a factory to produce more virus particles.
III:	The viral cDNA does not get integrated into any cells in the human body.
IV:	HIV also enters the T-helper cells and destroys them.
V:	The anti-retroviral treatment for AIDS is completely curative.

1.	All except V	2.	Only III and V
3.	Only I, III and IV	4.	All

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