NEET 2022 Biology (Ganganagar Paper)

Biology I - Section A

1. Which stage of meiosis can last for months or years in the oocytes of some vertebrates?

1.	Leptotene	2.	Pachytene
3.	Diplotene	4.	Diakinesis

2. When one CO₂ molecule is fixed as one molecule of triose phosphate, which of the following photochemically made, high energy chemical intermediates are used in the reduction phase?

1.	1 ATP + 1 NADPH	2.	1 ATP + 2 NADPH
3.	2 ATP + 1 NADPH	4.	2 ATP + 2 NADPH

3. In lac operon, z gene codes for :

1.	β–galactosidase	2.	Permease
3.	Repressor	4.	Transacetylase

4. Initiation of lateral roots and vascular cambium during secondary growth takes place in cells of :

1.	Epiblema	2.	Cortex
3.	Endodermis	4.	Pericycle

5. Match List-I with List -II:

List- I	List-II
(a) Adenine	(i) Pigment
(b) Anthocyanin	(ii) Polysaccharide
(c) Chitin	(iii) Alkaloid
(d) Codeine	(iv) Purine

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iv)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)
2.	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)	(i)
3.	(iii)	(i)	(iv)	(ii)
4.	(i)	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)

6. The number of time(s) decarboxylation of isocitrate occurs during single TCA cycle is :

1.	One	2.	Two
3.	Three	4.	Four

7. Match List-I with List- II

List -I	List -II
(a) In lac operon i gene codes for	(i) transacetylase
(b) In lac operon z gene codes for	(ii) permease
(c) In lac operon y gene codes for	(iii) $\beta-$ galactosidase
(d) In lac operon a gene codes for	(iv) Repressor

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iii)	(ii)	(i)	(iv)
2.	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)	(i)
3.	(iv)	(i)	(iii)	(ii)
4.	(iii)	(i)	(iv)	(ii)

8. Match List-I with List-II

List-I	List-II
(a) Chlamydomonas	(i) Moss
(b) Cycas	(ii) Pteridophyte
(c) Selaginella	(iii) Alga
(d) Sphagnum	(iv) Gymnosperm

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1	(iii)	(i)	(ii)	(iv)
2	(iii)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)
3	(iii)	(ii)	(i)	(iv)
4	(ii)	(iii)	(i)	(iv)

9. The pioneer species in a hydrarch succession are :

1.	Free-floating angiosperms	2.	Submerged rooted plants
3.	Phytoplanktons	4.	Filamentous algae

10. Which of the following growth regulators is an adenine derivative ?

1.	Auxin	2.	Cytokinin
3.	Ethylene	4.	Abscisic acid

11. The residual persistent part which forms the perisperm in the seeds of beet is :

1.	Calyx	2.	Endosperm
3.	Nucellus	4.	Integument

12. The type of tissue commonly found in the fruit wall of nuts is :

1.	Parenchyma	2.	Collenchyma
3.	Sclerenchyma	4.	Sclereid

13. Give the correct descending order of organisms with reference to their estimated number found in Amazon forest.

(a) Plants	(b) Invertebrates	(c) Fishes
(d) Mammals	(e) Birds

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(a) > (b) > (e) > (d) > (c)	2.	(a) > (c) > (d) > (b) > (e)
3.	(b) > (a) > (e) > (d) > (c)	4.	(b) > (a) > (c) > (e) > (d)

14. The Floral Diagram represents which one of the following families?

1.	Fabaceae	2.	Brassicaceae
3.	Solanaceae	4.	Liliaceae

15. Given below are two statements one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	When a particular restriction enzyme cuts strands of DNA, overhanging stretches or sticky ends are formed.
Reason (R):	Some restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA a little away from the centre of the palindromic site.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
4.	(A) is not correct but (R) is correct.

16. Given below are two statements :

Statement I:	DNA polymerases catalyse polymerisation only in one direction, that is 5' →3'
Statement II:	During replication of DNA, on one strand the replication is continuous while on other strand, it is discontinuous.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3.	Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

17. Given below are two statements :

Statement I:	Sickle cell anaemia and Haemophilia are autosomal dominant traits.
Statement II:	Sickle cell anaemia and Haemophilia are disorders of the blood.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
3.	Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

18. Match List-I with List-II

List-I	List-II
(a) Porins	(i) Pink coloured nodules
(b) leg haemoglobin	(ii) Lumen of thylakoid
(c) H⁺ accumulation	(iii) Amphibolic pathway
(d) Respiration	(iv) Huge pores in outer membrane of mitochondria

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)
2.	(iv)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)
3.	(iii)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)
4.	(ii)	(iv)	(i)	(iii)

19. The species that come to appear in bare area are called :

1.	Pioneer species	2.	Invasive species
3.	Competitive species	4.	Species of seral community

20. In general the egg apparatus of embryo sac in angiosperm consists of :

1.	One egg cell, two synergids, three antipodal cells, two Polar nuclei
2.	One egg cell, two synergids, two antipodal cells, three Polar nuclei
3.	One egg cell, three synergids, two antipodal cells, two Polar nuclei
4.	One egg cell, two synergids, two antipodal cells, two Polar nuclei

21. Match List-I with List-II

List-I	List-II
(a) Imbricate	(i) Calotropis
(b) Valvate	(ii) Cassia
(c) Vexillary	(iii) Cotton
(d) Twisted	(iv) Bean

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(i)	(iii)	(iv)
2.	(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)
3.	(ii)	(iv)	(iii)	(i)
4.	(i)	(iii)	(iv)	(ii)

22. All successions irrespective of the habitat proceed to which type of climax community ?

1.	Xeric	2.	Mesic
3.	Hydrophytic	4.	Edaphic

23. Separation of DNA, fragments is done by a technique known as :
1. Polymerase Chain Reaction
2. Recombinant technology
3. Southern blotting
4. Gel electrophoresis

24. The ascent of xylem sap in plants is mainly accomplished by the :

1.	size of the stomatal aperture
2.	distribution of stomata on the upper and lower epidermis
3.	cohesion and adhesion between water molecules
4.	root pressure

25. The phenomenon by which the undividing parenchyma cells start to divide mitotically during plant tissue culture is called as :

1.	Differentiation	2.	Dedifferentiation
3.	Redifferentiation	4.	Secondary growth

26. The 5-C compound formed during TCA cycle is:

1.	α–ketoglutaric acid	2.	Oxalo succinic acid
3.	Succinic acid	4.	Fumaric acid

27. In meiosis, crossing over and exchange of genetic material between homologous chromosomes are catalyzed by the enzyme.

1.	Phosphorylase	2.	Recombinase
3.	Transferase	4.	Polymerase

28. When a carrier protein facilitates the movement of two molecules across the membrane in same direction, it is called :

1.	Uniport	2.	Transport
3.	Antiport	4.	Symport

29. The World Summit on sustainable development held in 2002 in Johannesburg, South Africa pledged for:

1.	A significant reduction in the current rate of biodiversity loss.
2.	Declaration of more biodiversity hotspots.
3.	Increase in agricultural production
4.	Collection and preservation of seeds of different genetic strains of commercially important plants.

30. Interfascicular cambium is present between :
1. Primary xylem and primary phloem
2. Pericycle and endodermis
3. Two vascular bundles
4. Secondary xylem and secondary phloem

31. Which of the following statement is not correct?

1.	Rhizome is a condensed form of stem
2.	The apical bud in rhizome always remains above the ground
3.	The rhizome is aerial with no distinct nodes and internodes
4.	The rhizome is thick, prostrate and branched

32. To ensure that only the desired pollens fall on the stigma in artificial hybridization process :

(a)	the female flower buds of plant producing unisexual flower need not be bagged.
(b)	there is no need to emasculate unisexual flowers of selected female parent
(c)	emasculated flowers are to be bagged immediately after cross pollination
(d)	emasculated flowers are to be bagged after removal of anthers
(e)	bisexual flowers, showing protogyny are never selected for cross

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1.	(a), (b) and (c) only	2.	(b), (c) and (d) only
3.	(b), (c) and (e) only	4.	(a), (d) and (e) only

33. The chromosomal theory of inheritance was proposed by :

1.	Thomas Morgan	2.	Sutton and Boveri
3.	Gregor Mendel	4.	Robert Brown

34. Which of the following protects nitrogenase inside the root nodule of a leguminous plant ?

1.	Catalase	2.	leg haemoglobin
3.	Transaminase	4.	Glutamate dehydrogenase

35. The ability of plants to follow different pathways in response to environment leading to formation of different kinds of
structures is called :

1.	Redifferentiation	2.	Development
3.	Plasticity	4.	Differentiation

Biology I - Section B

36. Which of the following pair represents free living nitrogen fixing aerobic bacteria?
1. Rhizobium and Frankia
2. Azotobacter and Beijernickia
3. Anabaena and Rhodospirillum
4. Pseudomonas and Thiobacillus

37. Match List-I with List-II :

	List-I		List-II
(a)	Sacred groves	(i)	Alien species
(b)	Zoological park	(ii)	Release of large quantity of oxygen
(c)	Nile perch	(iii)	Ex-situ conservation
(d)	Amazon forest	(iv)	Khasi Hills in Meghalaya

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iv)	(iii)	(i)	(ii)
2.	(ii)	(iv)	(i)	(iii)
3.	(iv)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)
4.	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)	(i)

38. Primary proteins are also called as polypeptides because :

1.	They are linear chains
2.	They are polymers of peptide monomers
3.	Successive amino acids are joined by peptide bonds
4.	They can assume many conformations

39. Match List-I with List-II :

	List-I		List-II
(a)	Gene gun	(i)	Replacement of a faulty gene by a normal healthy gene
(b)	Gene therapy	(ii)	Used for transfer of gene
(c)	Gene cloning	(iii)	Total DNA in the cells of an organism
(d)	Genome	(iv)	To obtain identical copies of a particular DNA molecule

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)
2.	(i)	(iii)	(ii)	(iv)
3.	(iv)	(i)	(iii)	(ii)
4.	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)

40. Match List-I with List-II

	List- I		List-II
(a)	Bacteriophage $\phi \times 174$	(i)	48502 base pairs
(b)	Bacteriophage lambda	(ii)	5386 nucleotides
(c)	Escherichia coli	(iii)	3.3 × 10⁹ base pairs
(d)	Haploid content human DNA	(iv)	4.6 × 10⁶base pairs of

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(i)	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)
2.	(ii)	(iv)	(i)	(iii)
3.	(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)
4.	(i)	(ii)	(iv)	(iii)

41. Which of the following can be expected if scientists succeed in introducing apomictic gene into hybrid varieties of crops ?

1.	Polyembryony will be seen and each seed will produce many plantlets
2.	Seeds of hybrid plants will show longer dormancy
3.	Farmers can keep on using the seeds produced by the hybrids to raise new crop year after year
4.	There will be segregation of the desired characters only in the progeny

42. Frugivorous birds are found in large numbers in tropical forests mainly because of :

1.	lack of niche specialisation
2.	higher annual rainfall
3.	availability of fruits throughout the year
4.	temperature conducive for their breeding

43. Which type of substance would face difficulty to pass through the cell membrane?

1.	Substance with hydrophobic moiety
2.	Substance with hydrophilic moiety
3.	All substance irrespective of hydrophobic and hydrophilic moiety
4.	Substance soluble in lipids

44. What is the expected percentage of F₂ progeny with yellow and inflated pod in dihybrid cross experiment involving pea plants with green coloured, inflated pod and yellow coloured constricted pod?

1.	100%	2.	56.25%
3.	18.75 %	4.	9%

45. Read the following statements and identify the characters related to the alga shown in the diagram:

(a)	It is a member of Chlorophyceae
(b)	Food is stored in the form of starch
(c)	It is a monoecious plant showing oogonium and antheridium
(d)	Food is stored in the form of laminarin or mannitol
(e)	It shows dominance of pigments chlorophyll a, c and Fucoxanthin.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1.	(a) and (b) only	2.	(a), (b) and (c) only
3.	(a), (c) and (d) only	4.	(c), (d) and (e) only

46. Identify the correct statements regarding chemiosmotic hypothesis :

(a)	Splitting of the water molecule takes place on the inner side of the membrane.
(b)	Protons accumulate within the lumen of the thylakoids.
(c)	Primary acceptor of electron transfers the electrons to an electron carrier.
(d)	NADP reductase enzyme is located on the stroma side of the membrane.
(e)	Protons increase in number in stroma.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1.	(a), (b) and (e)	2.	(a), (b) and (d)
3.	(b), (c) and (d)	4.	(b), (c) and (e)

47. If a female individual is with a small round head, furrowed tongue, partially open mouth and broad palm with characteristic palm crease. Also, the physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded. The karyotype analysis of such an individual will show:

1.	47 chromosomes with XXY sex chromosomes
2.	45 chromosomes with XO sex chromosomes
3.	47 chromosomes with XYY sex chromosomes
4.	Trisomy of chromosome 21

48. Identify the correct sequence of events during Prophase I of meiosis :

(a)	Synapsis of homologous chromosomes
(b)	Chromosomes become gradually visible under microscope
(c)	Crossing over between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes
(d)	Terminalisation of chiasmata (e) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1.	(a), (b), (c), (d), (e)	2.	(b), (c), (d), (e), (a)
3.	(b), (a), (c), (e), (d)	4.	(a), (c), (d), (e), (b)

49. The enzyme (a) is needed for isolating genetic material from plant cells and enzyme (b) for isolating genetic material from fungus. Choose the correct pair of options from the following :

1.	(a) Cellulase (b) Protease	2.	(a) Cellulase (b) Chitinase
3.	(a) Chitinase (b) Lipase	4.	(a) Cellulase (b) Lipase

50. Match the List-I with List-II

List-I	List-II
(a) Carbon dissolved in oceans	(i) 55 billion tons
(b) Annual fixation of carbon through photosynthesis	(ii) 71%
(c) PAR captured by plants	(iii) $4 \times 10^3$ kg
(d) Productivity of oceans	(iv) 2 to 10%

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(iv)	(iii)	(i)
2.	(iii)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)
3.	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)
4.	(iii)	(ii)	(i)	(iv)

Biology II - Section A

51. Pathogenic bacteria gain resistance to antibiotics due to changes in their :

1.	Cosmids	2.	Plasmids
3.	Nucleus	4.	Nucleoid

52. Milk of transgenic 'Cow Rosie' was nutritionally more balanced product for human babies than natural cow milk because it contained:
1. Human protein

$\alpha$ –1–antitrypsin
2. Human alpha–lactalbumin
3. Human insulin–like growth factor
4. Human enzyme Adenosine Deaminase (ADA)

53. If the pH in lysosomes is increased to alkaline, what will be the outcome?

1.	Hydrolytic enzymes will function more efficiently
2.	Hydrolytic enzymes will become inactive
3.	Lysosomal enzymes will be released into the cytoplasm
4.	Lysosomal enzymes will be more active

54. Choose the incorrect enzymatic reaction:
1.

$Maltose \stackrel{\text { Maltase }}{\longrightarrow} Glucose + Galactose$
2.

$Sucrose \stackrel{\text { sucrease }}{\longrightarrow} Glucose + Fructose$
3.

$Lactose \stackrel{\text { Lactase }}{\longrightarrow} Glucose + Galactose$
4.

$Dipeptides \stackrel{\text { Dipeptidases }}{\longrightarrow}Amino ~acids$

55. Which of the following reasons is mainly responsible for graft rejection in transplantation of organs?

1.	Inability of recipient to differentiate between 'self and 'non–self' tissues/cells
2.	Humoral immune response only
3.	Auto–immune response
4.	Cell–mediated response

56. Mad cow disease in cattle and Cr Jacob disease in humans are due to infection by__________________ .

1.	Bacterium	2.	Virus
3.	Viroid	4.	Prion

57. If DNA contained sulphur instead of phosphorus and proteins contained phosphorus instead of sulfur, what would have been the outcome of Hershey and Chase experiment?
1. No radioactive sulfur in bacterial cells
2. Both radioactive sulfur and phosphorus in bacterial cells
3. Radioactive sulfur in bacterial cells
4. Radioactive phosphorus in bacterial cells

58. Two butterfly species are competing for the same nectar of a flower in a garden. To survive and coexist together, they may avoid competition in the same garden by:
1. feeding at the same time
2. choosing different foraging patterns
3. increasing time spent on attacking each other
4. predating on each other

59. Which of the following is not an Intra Uterine Device?

1.	Progestogens	2.	Multiload 375
3.	Lippes loop	4.	Progestasert

60. Match List-I with List-II

	List-I		List-II
(a)	Chlamydomonas	(i)	Conidia
(b)	Penicillium	(ii)	Zoospores
(c)	Hydra	(iii)	Gemmules
(d)	Sponge	(iv)	Buds

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(i)	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)
2.	(ii)	(i)	(iv)	(iii)
3.	(iii)	(ii)	(i)	(iv)
4.	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)	(i)

61. According to the sliding filament theory:

1.	Actin and myosin filaments slide over each other to increase the length of the sarcomere.
2.	Length of A–band does not change.
3.	I–band increases in length
4.	The actin filaments slide away from A–band resulting in shortening of sarcomere

62. The amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a time period by plants during photosynthesis is called:

1.	Secondary production	2.	Primary production
3.	Gross primary production	4.	Net primary production

63. Given below are two statements:

Statement I :	Amino acids have a property of ionizable nature of –NH₂ and –COOH groups, hence have different structures at different pH.
Statement II :	Amino acids can exist as Zwitterionic form at acidic and basic pH.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.	Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
2.	Both Statement I and Statement II are Incorrect
3.	Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4.	Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

64. Which of the following types of epithelium is present in the bronchioles and Fallopian tubes?

1.	Simple squamous epithelium	2.	Simple columnar epithelium
3.	Ciliated epithelium	4.	Stratified squamous epithelium

65. Western Ghats have a large number of plants and animal species that are not found anywhere else. Which of the following term is used to notify such species?

1.	Threatened species	2.	Keystone species
3.	Endemic species	4.	Vulnerable species

66. Gout is a type of disorder which leads to:

1.	Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals
2.	Weakening of bones due to decreased bone mass
3.	Inflammation of joints due to cartilage degeneration
4.	Weakening of bones due to low calcium level

67. Panspermia, an idea that is still a favourite for some astronomers, means :

1.	Creation of life from dead and decaying matter
2.	Creation of life from chemicals
3.	Origin of sperm in human testes
4.	Transfer of spores as unit of life from other planets of Earth

68. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to vital capacity?

(a)	It includes ERV, TV and IRV
(b)	Total volume of air a person can inspire after a normal expiration
(c)	The maximum volume of air a person can breathe in after forced expiration
(d)	It includes ERV, RV and IRV.
(e)	The maximum volume of air a person can breathe out after a forced inspiration.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1.	(b), (d) and (e)	2.	(a), (c) and (d)
3.	(a), (c) and (e)	4.	(a) and (e)

69. A unique vascular connection between the digestive tract and liver is called _______________.

1.	Hepato–pancreatic system	2.	Hepatic portal system
3.	Renal portal system	4.	Hepato–cystic system

70. Match List-I with List-II regarding the organs of cockroach:

List I	List II
(a) Crop	(i) grinding the food particles
(b) Proventriculus	(ii) secretion of digestive juice
(c) Hepatic caecae	(iii) removal of nitrogenous waste
(d) Malpighian tubules	(iv) storage of food

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iv)	(i)	(ii)	(iii)
2.	(iii)	(ii)	(i)	(iv)
3.	(ii)	(iv)	(i)	(iii)
4.	(i)	(iv)	(iii)	(ii)

71. Choose the correct statement about a muscular tissue :

1.	Skeletal muscle fibres are uninucleated and found in parallel bundles.
2.	Intercalated discs allow the cardiac muscle cells to contract as a unit.
3.	The walls of blood vessels are made up of columnar epithelium.
4.	Smooth muscles are multinucleated and involuntary

72. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	Spirulina is a microbe that can be used for reducing the environmental pollution.
Reason (R):	Spirulina is a rich source of protein, carbohydrates, fats, minerals, and vitamins.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

73. Arrange the components of mammary gland. (from proximal to distal)

(a) Mammary duct	(b) Lactiferous duct	(c) Alveoli
(d) Mammary ampulla	(e) Mammary tubules

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
1. (c) → (a) → (d) → (e) → (b)
2. (b) → (c) → (e) → (d) → (a)
3. (c) → (e) → (a) → (d) → (b)
4. (e) → (c) → (d) → (b) → (a)

74. Select the incorrect match regarding the symbols used in Pedigree analysis:

1.		Sex unspecified
2.		Affected individual
3.		Consanguineous mating
4.		Parent with male child affected with disease

75. Why CNG is considered better fuel than diesel?

(a)	It cannot be adulterated
(b)	It takes less time to fill the fuel tank
(c)	It burns more efficiently
(d)	It is cheaper
(e)	It is less inflammable.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1.	(a), (b), (c), (e) only	2.	(a), (c), (d) only
3.	(a), (b), (d), (e) only	4.	(c), (d), (e) only

76. Which of the following methods is not commonly used for introducing foreign DNA into the plant cell?

1.	Agrobacterium mediated transformation
2.	Gene gun
3.	'Disarmed pathogen' vectors
4.	Bacteriophages

77. Identify the region of human brain which has pneumotaxic centre that alters respiratory rate by reducing the duration of inspiration.

1.	Medulla	2.	Pons
3.	Thalamus	4.	Cerebrum

78. How many secondary spermatocytes are required to form 400 million spermatozoa ?

1.	50 million	2.	100 million
3.	200 million	4.	400 million

79. Select the Incorrect statements with respect to Cyclostomes :

(a)	They lack scales and paired fins.
(b)	They have circular mouth with Jaws.
(c)	They bear 6-15 pairs of gills.
(d)	They migrate to deep sea for spawning.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	(a) and (b) only	2.	(b) and (c) only
3.	(b) and (d) only	4.	(a) and (d) only

80. Bivalent or Tetrad formation is a characteristic feature observed during :
1. Synaptonemal complex in zygotene stage
2. Chiasmata in Diplotene stage
3. Synaptonemal complex in Pachytene stage
4. Chiasmata in zygotene stage

81. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	FSH which interacts with membrane-bound receptors does not enter the target cell.
Reason (R):	Binding of FSH to its receptors generates a second messenger (cyclic AMP) for its biochemical and physiological responses.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

82. Which of the following animals has three chambered heart?

1.	Scoliodon	2.	Hippocampus
3.	Chelone	4.	Pteropus

83. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

Assertion (A):	During pregnancy, the level of thyroxine is increased in the maternal blood.
Reason (R):	Pregnancy is characterised by metabolic changes in the mother.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2.	Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3.	(A) is True but (R) is False.
4.	(A) is False but (R) is True.

84. Role of enamel is to :
1. Connect crown of tooth with its root.
2. Masticate the food.
3. Form bolus.
4. Give basic shape to the teeth

85. Choose the correct statements :

(a)	Bones support and protect softer tissues and organs
(b)	Weight bearing function is served by limb bones
(c)	Ligament is the site of production of blood cells.
(d)	Adipose tissue is specialised to store fats.
(e)	Tendons attach one bone to another.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	(a), (b) and (d) only	2.	(b), (c) and (e) only
3.	(a), (c) and (d) only	4.	(a), (b) and (e) only

Biology II - Section B

86. Which of the following are true about the taxonomical aid 'key' ?

(a)	Keys are based on the similarities and dissimilarities.
(b)	Key is analytical in nature.
(c)	Keys are based on the contrasting characters in pair called couplet.
(d)	Same key can be used for all taxonomic categories.
(e)	Each statement in the key is called Lead.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	(a), (b) and (c) only	2.	(b), (c) and (d) only
3.	(a), (b), (c) and (e) only	4.	(a), (c), (d) and (e) only

87. A normal girl, whose mother is haemophilic marries a male with no ancestral history of haemophilia. What will be the possible phenotypes of the offsprings ?

(a)	Haemophilic son and haemophilic daughter.
(b)	Haemophilic son and carrier daughter.
(c)	Normal daughter and normal son.
(d)	Normal son and haemophilic daughter.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	(a) and (b) only	2.	(b) and (c) only
3.	(a) and (d) only	4.	(b) and (d) only

88. Against the codon 5' UAC 3', what would be the sequence of anticodon on tRNA ?

1.	5' AUG 3'	2.	5' ATG 3'
3.	5' GTA 3'	4.	5' GUA 3

89. IUDs are small objects made up of plastic or copper that are inserted in the uterine cavity. Which of the following statements are correct about IUDs ?

(a)	IUDs decrease phagocytosis of sperm within the uterus.
(b)	The released copper ions suppress the sperm motility.
(c)	IUDs do not make the cervix hostile to the sperm.
(d)	IUDs suppress the fertilization capacity of sperm.
(e)	The IUDs require surgical intervention for their insertion in the uterine cavity.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	(a), (d) and (e) only	2.	(b) and (c) only
3.	(b) and (d) only	4.	(d) only

90. Refer to the following statements for agarose-gel electrophoresis :

(a)	Agarose is a natural polymer obtained from sea-weed.
(b)	The separation of DNA molecules in agarose-gel electrophoresis depends on the size of DNA.
(c)	The DNA migrates from negatively-charged electrode to the positively-charged electrode
(d)	The DNA migrates from positively-charged electrode to the negatively-charged electrode.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	(a) and (b) only	2.	(a), (b) and (c) only
3.	(a), (b) and (d) only	4.	(b), (c) and (d) only

91. Match List-I with List-II

List-I	List-II
(a) Multipolar neuron	(i) Somatic neural system
(b) Bipolar neuron	(ii) Cerebral cortex
(c) Myelinated nerve fibre	(iii) Retina of Eye
(d) Unmyelinated nerve fibre	(iv) Spinal nerves

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(iii)	(i)	(iv)	(ii)
2.	(ii)	(iv)	(iii)	(i)
3.	(ii)	(iii)	(i)	(iv)
4.	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)

92. Excretion in cockroach is performed by all, EXCEPT :

1.	Urecose glands	2.	Malpighian tubules
3.	Fat body	4.	Hepatic caeca

93. Select the correct statement regarding mutation theory of evolution.

1.	This theory was proposed by Alfred Wallace
2.	Variations are small directional changes
3.	Single step large mutation is a cause of speciation
4.	Large differences due to mutations arise gradually in a population

94. Arrange the following formed elements in the decreasing order of their abundance in blood in humans :

(a)	Platelets
(b)	Neutrophils
(c)	Erythrocytes
(d)	Eosinophils
(e)	Monocytes

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	(c), (a), (b), (e), (d)	2.	(c), (b), (a), (e), (d)
3.	(d), (e), (b), (a), (c)	4.	(a), (c), (b), (d), (e)

95. In the enzyme which catalyses the breakdown of:

$\mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}_2 \rightarrow \mathrm{H}_2 \mathrm{O}+\mathrm{O}_2$
the prosthetic group is:

1.	Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide	2.	Haem
3.	Zinc	4.	Niacin

96. Select the correct statements.

(a)	Angiotensin II activates the cortex of adrenal gland to release aldosterone.
(b)	Aldosterone leads to increase in blood pressure.
(c)	ANF acts as a check on renin-angiotensin mechanism.
(d)	ADH causes vasodilation.
(e)	Vasopressin is released from adenohypophysis.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1.	(a), (b) and (e) only	2.	(c), (d) and (e) only
3.	(b), (c) and (d) only	4.	(a), (b) and (c) only

97. With respect to metaphase, which of the following statements is incorrect ?

1.	Complete disintegration of nuclear envelope takes place
2.	Chromosomes are highly condensed
3.	Metaphase chromosomes are made up of four sister chromatids held together by centromere
4.	Chromosomes lie at the equator of the cell

98.

Select the incorrect statement with respect to inbreeding of animals.

1.	It is used for evolving pure lines in cattle.
2.	It helps in accumulation of superior genes and elimination of less desirable genes.
3.	It decreases homozygosity.
4.	It exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection

99. Match List-I with List-II

List-I	List-II
(a) Cellular barrier	(i) Interferons
(b) Cytokine barrier	(ii) Mucus
(c) Physical barrier	(iii) Neutrophils
(d) Physiological barrier	(iv) HCI in gastric juice

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

	(a)	(b)	(c)	(d)
1.	(ii)	(iii)	(iv)	(i)
2.	(ii)	(iii)	(i)	(iv)
3.	(iii)	(iv)	(ii)	(i)
4.	(iii)	(i)	(ii)	(iv)

100. If A and C make 30% and 20% of DNA, respectively, what will be the percentage composition of T and G ?

1.	T : 20%, G : 30%	2.	T : 30%, G : 20%
3.	T : 30%, G : 30%	4.	T : 20%, G : 20%

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