ldentify the correct match from the columns l, ll and lll,
Column - l Column - ll Column - ii
(A) Proliferative phase (a) 14th day (i) Formation of corpus luteum
(B) Secretory phase (b) 1st-5th day (ii) Development of Graafian follicle
(C) Bleeding phase (c) 15th-28th day (iii) Shedding of stratum functional
(D) Ovulatory phase (d) 6th-13th day (iv) Release of secondary oocyte
1.d iii;2ci,3iv,4aii
2.c ii;2 b,iii,3 a i,4div
3. d ii;2 nc i,3b iii,4aiv
4. d iii;2 b iv,3 a ii,4 c i
Endometrium regenerates itself through proliferation .....
1. ln bleeding phase
2. After bleeding phase, but before secretory phase
3. After follicular phase but before secretory phase
4. After secretory phase, but before proliferative phase
Which of the following route of sperms is correct from seminiferous tubules to outside?
1. Rete testisVas deferensEpididymisEjaculatory duct
2. Vasa efferentiaVas deferensRaete testisEpididymis
3. EpididymisRete testisVasa efferentiaVas deferens
4. Rete testisVasa efferentia EpidiaymisVas deferens
Tablets prevents conceiving in female contain :-
1. Progesterone
2. LH
3. FSH
4. Both (2) abd (3)
Which one of the following statements is incorrect?
1. Floridian starch is similar to glycogen
2. Algin and carrageen both are hydrocolloid compound
3. Agar is commercially produced from Geladium
4. Laminaria, Porphyra & Sargassum among the 75 species of marine algae that are used as a food
Choose the correct statement:-
1. E.coli show amphitrichous nature
2. Rhodospirillum is an example of purple sulfur bacteria
3. Acetobacter acetic is an example of facultative anaerobic
4. Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter are an example of Nitrogen-fixing bacteria
Which of the following pair is incorrect for the animals of class reptilia?
1. Constant temperature and external fertilisation
2. Sexes separate and lack of metamorphosis
3. 12 pairs cranial nerves and dry skin
4. Skull monocodylic ad skin with scales
Find the alphabet in the above diagram, which is labeling a triploid structure :
1. D
2. C
3. B
4. A
In Citrus and Mango, varieties ___(A)___ cells of the maternal sporophyte of ovule start dividing and develop into the embryos.
1. Integumentary cells
2. Nucellar cells
3. MMC
4. Embryosac
(a) Light and non-sticky pollen grain
(b) Well exposed stamens
(c) Large often – Feathery stigma
(d) Always have single ovule in each ovary
(e) Numerous flowers packed into Inflorescence.
How many above features favor anemophily?
1. Two
2. Three
3. Five
4. Four
During the formation of leaves and elongation of the stem, some cells "left behind" from the shoot apical meristem, constitute
1. Lateral meristem
2. Axillary bud
3. Cork cambium
4. Fascicular cambium
Match the following column I and II
|
Column-I |
|
Column-II |
(a) |
The unisexual actinomorphic flower |
I |
Brassicaceae |
(b) |
Epipetalous and monadelphous androecium |
II |
Labiatae |
(c) |
Didynamous androecium |
III |
Cucurbitaceae |
(d) |
Bicorpellary superior ovary |
IV |
Malvaceae |
1. a - III, b - IV, c - II, d - I
2. a - II, b - IV, c - III, d - I
3. a - III, b - IV, c - I, d - II
4. a - IV, b - III, c - II, d - I
Choose the incorrect statement for keys
1. A pair of contrasting characters is called a couplet
2. They are analytical in nature
3. Family, genus, and species can be identified with a single key
4. Each statement in the key is called lead
Study the following diagram carefully and select the correct statement given below for this plant
1. It is a source of carrageenan
2. It shows the haplontic life cycle
3. Laminarin has stored food in it
4. (2) and (3) both
A mineral nutrient will be considered as toxic when
1. It inhibits reproduction in plants
2. It increases the accumulation of secondary metabolites
3. It decreases the dry weight more than ten percent
4. It inhibits photosynthesis
Chromosome in which centromere is present in almost at the middle of the chromosome is known as
1. Metacentric
2. Sub metacentric
3. Acrocentric
4. Telocentric
Swollen leaf base occurs in some leguminous plants
1. Plumule
2. Pulvinus
3. Bulb
4. Tuber
The figure shows four animals(a), (b), (c), (d) . Select the correct answer with respect to a common characteristics of two of these animals.
1. (c) and (d) hve organ system level of organisation
2. (a) and (d) respire mainly through body wall
3. (b) and (c) show metamerism
4. (b) and (d) have cnidoblasts for self defence
Which of the following is/are similarity between Periplaneta and Pheretima?
(A) Open blood vascular system
(B) lnternal fertilisation
(C) Dioecious
(D) Double ventral nerve cord
(E) lndirect development Present
1. Only B
2. only B, C and E
3. Only D
4. only A,C and D
Which of the following is not the function of tapetum?
1. Secretion of sporopollenin
2. It provide nutrition to the megaspore mother cell
3. Secretion of pollenkitt substances
4. It sercete enzyme
Colchicine prevent the mitosis of cell at:
1. Prophase stage
2. Anaphase stage
3. Metaphase stage
4. Telophase stage
Which of the following statement is true?
1. In Alstonia the petioles expand, become green, and synthesize food.
2. Leaves are modified into tendrils for climbing as in pumpkins.
3. Imbricate aestivation of petals occur in the flower of Calotropis.
4. In palmately compound leaves the leaflets are attached at a common point
Read the following four statements (a-d)
(a) Quiescent centre is present in shoot apex of monocot plants
(b) Lateral roots are originated from pericycle
(c) Polyarch condition is found in maize root
(d) The springwood is darker in colour and has a higher density where as the autumn wood is lighter and has a lower density How many of the above statement are wrong ?
1. Four
2. One
3. Two
4. Three
The asexual spores are generally not found in:-
1. Neurospora
2. Claviceps
3. Trichoderma
4. Ustilago
Read the following statements (a-d) and choose the correct options.
(a) Though the bacterial structure is very simple, they are very complex in behaviour.
(b) Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having a different cell wall structure.
(c) The cyanobacteria have 'chlorophyll 'b' similar to green plants.
(d) Algae play a great role in the recycling of nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorous, iron and sulphur.
1. a, b correct and c, d incorrect.
2. a, c, d correct and A incorrect.
3. c, d correct and a, b incorrect.
4. a, b, c and d correct.
The figures below shows 3 phases of mitosis select the option given correct identification together with the correct event ?
1. C- Telophase-Nuclear envelope assembles around the chromosome clusters
2. B- Anaphase-Segregation of homologous chromosomes.
3. A- Prophase-Chromosomes get fully condensed.
4. C- Metaphase-Condensation of chromatin to form chromosome
Read the statement (a - d) :
a. The male and female gametophytes do not have independent existence.
b. The multicellular female gametophyte is also retained within megasporangium.
c. The gametophytic generation is reduced.
d. Sporophylls are aggregate to form cone like structures.
The above statements belong to which group of plant kingdom?
1. Bryophytes
2. Pteridophytes
3. Gymnosperms
4. Angiosperms
Gel electrophoresis is used for :-
1. Construction of recombinant DNA by joining with cloning vectors
2. Purification of product
3. Cutting of DNA into fragments
4. Separation of DNA fragments according to their size
Match the following :-
A a-1 antitrypsin i Molecular diagnosis
B Rosie cow ii Mice
C Polio vaccine iii Alpha lactalbumin
D P.C.R iv Emphysema
1. A-(iv), B-(iii) ; C-(ii), D-(i)
2. A-(i), B-(ii) ; C-(iii), D-(iv)
3. A-(ii), B-(iv) ; C-(i), D-(iii)
4. A-(iii), B-(ii) ; C-(iv), D-(i)
The unmodified (functioning) allele which represents the original phenotype is the allele and the modified allele is the allele.
1. (a) Recessive, (b) generally, (c) dominant
2. (a) dominant, (b) always, (c) recessive
3. (a) dominant, (b) generally, (c) recessive
4. (a) recessive, (b) always, (c) dominant
Match column-I with column-II.
|
Column-I |
|
Column-II |
(a) |
Multiple alleles |
(i) |
Phenylketonuria in humans |
(b) |
Polygenes |
(ii) |
Blood groups in humans |
(c) |
Pleiotropy |
(iii) |
Skin color in human |
1. a-ii, b-i, c-iii
2. a-ii, b-iii, c-i
3. a-iii, b-ii, c-i
4. a-i, b-iii, c-ii
A homozygous recessive with cd genes was crossed with dominant (+ +). If their hybrid is test crossed and the following result was obtained
+ + - 900
cd - 880
+ d - 115
+ c - 105
than what will be the distance between genes c and d.
1. 5.75 unit
2. 11 unit (cis)
3. 22 unit (Trans)
4. 90 unit
Study the pedigree chart given below –
What does it show ?
1. Inheritance of a recessive sex-linked disease like hemophilia
2. Inheritance of a sex-linked inborn error of metabolism like phenylketonuria
3. Inheritance of a condition like phenylketonuria as an autosomal recessive trait
4. The pedigree chart is wrong as this is not possible
Which of the following is wrongly matched in the given table?
|
Microbe |
Product |
Application |
(1) |
Trichoderma |
Cyclosporin |
immuno- |
(2) |
Monascus |
Statins |
lowering of |
(3) |
Streptococcus |
Strepto- |
removal of |
(4) |
Clostridium |
Lipase |
removal of |
1. (1)
2. (2)
3. (3)
4. (4)
Choose correct one :-
1. a-DNA, b-H-histone, c-histone octamer, d-core of histone
2. a-core of histone, b-DNA, c-H histone, d-histone octamer
3. a-Histone octamer, b-core of histone, c-DNA, d-H histone
4. a-H histone, b-histone octamer, c-core of histone, d-DNA
Match the column-I with column II and choose correct option :-
|
Column-l |
|
Column-II |
a |
RNA polymerase-I |
i |
ScRNA |
B |
RNA polymerase-Il |
ii |
5.8S r-RNA |
c |
RNA polymerase-Ill |
iii |
hn-RNA |
1. a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii)
2. a-(ii), b-(i), c-(iii)
3. a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i)
4. a-(iii), b-(i), c-(ii)
Backbone of DNA is formed by :-
1. Sugar Phosphate Sugar
2. Nitrogen base Phosphate Sugar
3. Phosphate Nitrogen base Sugar
4. Base pairs
Match the column-I with column-II
|
Column-I |
|
Column-Il |
A |
Micropropagation |
i |
To obtain virus free plants |
B |
Meristem culture |
ii |
Production of large number of plants |
C |
Biofortification |
iii |
Improvement of nutritional quality in crops |
d |
Somatic hybridization |
iv |
Protoplast fusion |
1. a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
2. a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
3. a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
4. a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
ER, Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuoles are included in endomembrane system because :-
1. Their function are similar
2. Their structure are same
3. Their function are co-ordinated
4. Golgi complex, lysosomes and vacuoles are originated from the ER
At the time of DNA replication, deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate serves dual purposes which are:-
1. These are acting as substrate
2. They provide energy for polymerisation
3. Both 1 and 2
4. None of these
Match the columns (I with II)
|
Column-l |
|
Column-ll |
a. |
Microbodies |
(i) |
Ribosome |
b. |
Chromosome |
(ii) |
Sap vacuole |
c. |
Polysome |
(iii) |
Peroxisome |
d. |
Tonoplast |
(iv) |
Kinetochore |
1. a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii)
2. a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii)
3. a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
4. a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(i)
At anaphase-II, sister chromatids move towards opposite poles of the cell by :
1. Contraction in spindle fibre attached to kinetochores
2. Shorterning of microtubules attached to kinetochores
3. Lengthening of microtubules attached to kinetochores
4. Relaxation in spindle fibre attached to kinetochores
Movement of HO is from :-
Choose the incorrect statement(s) :-
(1) ln a transcription unit, a promoter is located in the upstream region of the structural gene with respect to template strand
(2) Cistron is the segment of RNA that codes for one or more polypeptide chains
(3) Most prokaryotic genes are polycistronic and split genes
1. a only
2. c only
3. b and c
4. a, b and c
Match the following :-
|
Column A |
|
Column B |
(i) |
Auxin |
(a) |
Brewing industry |
(ii) |
Gibbrelic Acid |
(b) |
Xylem differentiation |
(iii) |
Cytokinin |
(c) |
Fruit ripening |
(iv) |
Ethylene |
(d) |
Overcome Apical dominance |
1. (i) (b), (ii) (a), (iii) (d), (iv) (c)
2. (i) (b), (ii) (a), (iii) (c), (iv) (d)
3. (i) (a), (ii) (b), (iii) (d), (iv) (c)
4. (i) (b), (ii) (d), (iii) (a), (iv) (c)
Process of translation requires the transfer of genetic information from:-
1. A polymer of amino acids to a polymer of polypeptide chains
2. Polymer of deoxynucleotides to polymer of nucleotides
3. Polymer of nucleotides to a polymer of amino acids
4. Polymer of amino acids to polymer of codons
Which one is correct with respect to long day plant?
1. Pfr / Pr > 1
2. Pr / Pfr > 1
3. Red light inhibit flowering
4. Far red light promote flowering
Hydrogen atoms released at succinate level in Krebs cycle are accepted by–
1. NAD
2. FAD
3. NADP
4. ADP
Glycolate accumulates in chloroplast at-
1. High O and high temperature
2. Low temperature
3. High CO
4. Bright sun light
In C plants CO are reduced into sugar is :
1. Mesophyll cells
2. In bundle sheath cells
3. In spongy parenchyma
4. Both A & B
ldentify A, B, C, D, E :-
1. A= inducer, B= repressor, C= inhibitor, D= mRNA, E= operator
2. A= repressor mRNA, B= inducer, C= permease, D= transacetylase, E= operator
3. A= repressor, B= operator, C=-galactosidase, D= transacetylase, E= promoter
4. A= operator, B= inducer, C= permease, D= RNA polymerase, E= lac mRNA
1. lt is structure of of deoxyribose
2. lf is component of deoxyribonucleotide
3. lt is 6 carbons monosaccharide
4. lt is present in RNA
Adult human has :-
1. Diphyodont and homodont dentition
2. Thecodont homodont dentition
3. Thecodont and monophyodont dentition
4. Diphyodont and heterodont dentition
Total volume of air accommodated in the lungs at the end of a forced inspiration includes all except :-
1. RV (Residual Volume)
2. TV (Tidal Volume)
3. DSV (Dead Space Volume)
4. All of the above are included in TLC
During ventricular diastole, which of the following event take place earliest?
1. Closure of semilunar valve
2. Opening of cuspid valve
3. 'Lub' sound appears
4. Both 1 and 3
lncreasing osmolarity towards the inner medullary interstitium is mainly caused by :-
1. NaCl and uric acid
2. DCT and collecting duct
3. PCT and vasa recta
4. NaCl and urea
Haldane effect is due to :-
1. HbO
2. Fall in
3. Metabolism at tissue level
4. Rise in CO concentration at alveolar level
Why the partial pressure of oxygen in oxygenated blood is 95 mm of Hg, not 104 mm of Hg?
1. Because alveoli deliver limited oxygen to Hb
2. Because Hb can carry only 2 molecule of O at a time
3. Because saturation of Hb with O is affected by high at alveolar level.
4. Because saturation of Hb with O is only 97%, not 100% at alveolar level
Pulmonary heart consist of :-
1. left atrium and left ventricle
2. right ventricle and left atrium
3. left ventricle and right atrium
4. right atrium and right ventricle
The diagram shows vertical sections of kidneys of camel, kangaroo rat, and coypu, showing the relative size of cortex and medulla. Which kidney belongs to which animal?
[Note: Coypu, the freshwater animal never short of water to drink]
A B C
(1) Kangaroo rat Coypu Camel
(2) Kangaroo rat Camel Coypu
(3) Coypu Kangaroo rat Camel
(3) Kangaroo rat Camel Coypu
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
Which one of the four parts mentioned below does not constitute a part of a single nephron?
1. Loop of Henle
2. Collecting duct
3. PCT
4. DCT
ln which of the following nephrons Malpighian corpuscles are located at the junction of cortex and medulla?
1. Cortical nephron
2. Only in the case of 20% cortical nephrons
3. Juxtamedullary nephrons
4. Both in cortical and juxtamedullary nephrons
Which of the following organ is not related to development of lymphocytes;-
1. Bone marrow
2. Thymus
3. Both 1 & 2
4. Liver
Which of the following statement is correct for lgM antibody?
1. lt is first appeared antibody
2. lt has 5 paratopes
3. lt is pentameric in structure
4. lt shows secondary immune response
Match each disease with its corret type of vaccine:
(a) tuberculosis (i) harmless virus
(b) whooping cough (ii) inactivated toxin
(c) diphtheria (iii) killed bacteria
(d) polio (iv) harmless bacteria
1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
The selection of resistant bacteria and industrial melanism is an example of:-
1. Artificial selection
2. Natural selection
3. Convergent evolution
4. Adaptive radiation
Below diagram represent :-
1. Analogous organ
2. Convergent evolution
3. Adaptive radiation
4 Homologous organ
Protobionts have;-
1. Non-enzymatic protein & replicable nucleic acid
2. Non-replicable nucleic acid & enzymatic protein
3. Non-enzymatic & non-structural protein
4. Structural protein & non-replicable nucleic acid
ln the given figure, identify Coniferous forest, Arctic and Alpine Tundra and tropical forest, respectively:-
1. l, Vl and lll
2. V, Vl and lll
3. lV, lll and l
4. l, ll and lll
ldentify the lines prsent in the given graph A, B and C :-
1. A-Partial regulators, B-Regulators, C-Endotherms
2. A-Partial regulators, B-Ectotherms, C-Endotherms
3. A-Partial regulators, B-Regulators, C-Conformers
4. A-Conformers, B-Endotherms, C-Partial regulators
P wave and QRS complex in ECG respectively represent:-
1. Atrial repolarization and Ventricular depolarization
2. Ventricular depolarization and Atrial repolarization
3. Atrial depolarization and Ventricular depolarization
4. Atrial depolarization and Ventricular repolarization
l. Many xerophytic plants have thick cuticle on leaf epidermis and sunken stomata.
ll. Some xerophytic plants have special photosynthetic pathway (CAM) tht enables their stomata close during day.
lll. Opuntia has spines (modified leaves), photosynthetic phylloclade (stem).
lV. Adaptations are genetically fixed in orainsms.
V. Adaptation are not genetically fixed.
Choose the combination of correct option :-
1. l, ll, lll and lV
2. ll, lll, lV and V
3. lll, lV, V and l
4. l, ll, lll and V
Below are some statements related to life cycle of plasmodium. Which of the following is correct?
1. Gametocyte stage infects human body
2. It multiplies by sexual method of reproduction in human liver
3. Human RBC are ruptured and releases a toxin hemozoin
4. Development of gametocyte possible only in female Culex mosquito
ldentify the incorrect statement :-
1. Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption to autotrophs
2. Primary productivity depends on the inhabiting plant species, environment factors, nutrient availability and photosynthetic capacity of plants
3. Gross primary productivity minus respiration loss is the Net Primary Productivity (NPP)
4. The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is approx. 170 billion tonnes of organic matter
Fill up the blanks:-
l. The products of ecosystem processes are called .....A......
ll. ...B.. are the major source of ecosystem services.
lll. ...C... and his colleagues tried to put price tags on nature's life support survives which, came up to US ...D... a year.
Choose the correct option for A, B, C and D.
1. A-Ecosystem services, B-Plants, C-Robert Brown, D-31 trillion
2. A-Ecology services, B-Plants, C-Robert Constanza, D-33 trillion
3. A-Ecosystem services, B-Forests, C-Robert Constanza, D-33 trillion
4. A-Ecology services, B-Ponds, C-Robert Brown, D-34 trillion
l. Pioneer community is the final biotic community that develops in an area.
ll. Growth is fast in the pioneer community as compared to the climax community.
lll. Pioneer community develops partly from the previous occupants and partly from migrants primary succession.
lV. Pioneer community is soon replaced by the next seral community during ongoing succession.
ldentify the incorrect statements:-
1. l and ll
2. l, ll and lll
3. l and lll
4. lll and lV
Given below are pie diagram l, ll and lll related to the proportionate number of species of major taxa of invertebrates, vertebrates and plants, respectively. Critically study the fill in the blanks A, B, C and D.
1. A-Mollusca, B-Amphibians, C Angiosperms, D-Gymnosperms
2. A-Mollusca, B-Amphibians, C-Fungi, D-Angiosperms
3. A-Turtles, B-Amphibians, C-Fungi, D-Angiosperms
4. A-Hexapoda, B-Amphibians, C-Fungi, D-Angiosperms
Many species like Steller's sea cow and passenger pigeon have been extinct. Which of the following describes this situation?
1. Overexploitation by humans
2. Pollution
3. Habitat loss
4. Competition from introduced species
The organisation, which publishes the Red List of species is :-
1. lCFRE
2. lUCN
3. UNEP
4. WWF
The below diagram show electrostatic precipitator. Identify A, B, C, D and select the correct option :-
1. A-Dust particle, B-Negatively charged wire, C-Discharge corona, D-Collection plate grounded
2. A-Discharge corona, B-Collection plate grounded, C-Dust particle, D-Negatively charged wire
3. A-Discharge corona, B-Negatively charged wire, C-Dust particle, D-Collection plate grounded
4. A-Discharge corona, B-Dust particle, C-Negatively charged wire, D-Collection plate grounded
What steps should be taken for the disposal of nuclear waste?
1. Nuclear waste should be pre-treated
2. It should be stored in shielded containers
3. It should be buried about 500 m deep within the rock
4. All of the above
A balance should exist between production and degradation of ozone. By which factor this balance is being disrupted resulting in degradation of ozone content of atmosphere?
Choose the correct option :-
1. Greenhouse gases
2. Chlorofluorocarbons
3. Nitrous oxide
4. Aromatic Compounds
Match the column I with column II :-
Column (l) Column (ll)
(i) Elbow jont (a) Condylar joint
(ii) Atlanto-occipital joint (b) Fibrous joint
(iii) Inferior-tibiofibular joint (c) Hinge joint
(iv) Carpo-metacarpal joint of thumb (d) Ball and socket join
(v) Shoulder joint (e) Saddle joint
1. (i) – c, (ii) – d, (iii) – a, (iv) – b, (v) – e
2. (i) – c, (ii) – a, (iii) – b, (iv) – e, (v) – d
3. (i) – c, (ii) – e, (iii) – d, (iv) – a, (v) – b
4. (i) – c, (ii) – d, (iii) – b, (iv) – a, (v) – e
In the given diagram identify A, B, C :-
(A) (B) (C)
(i) Tropomyosin F-Actin Troponin
(ii) Troponin Tropomyosin F-Actin
(iii) F-Actin Tropomyosin Troponin
(iv) Tropomyosin Troponin F-Actin
1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4
Steroid hormones :-
1. Are all produced by the adrenal cortex
2. Have only cell surface receptors
3. Are lipo-phobic
4. Act through stimulating the production of new proteins in the target cells
Identify the incorrect option in given diagram:
1. A = made up of only actin filaments
2. B = made up of actin and myosin filaments
3. C = made up of one I-band + one H-band
4. D = made up of only myosin filaments
Which statement is incorrect.
1. Adrenal cortex hormones stimulate Na+ reabsorption.
2. Thyroid hormone helps in regulation menstrual cycle.
3. Estradiol and oestrogen are binds with intracellular receptors
4. Cortisol maintain immune system by stimulation of Antibody formation.
Read the following statement carefully and choose how many of them are incorrect:
A. Afferent neuron transmits a signal to CNS.
B. Choroid layer is bluish in color and is present over the posterior two-thirds of the eyeball.
C. Olfactory bulbs are an extension of the hypothalamus.
D. Medulla oblongata has a center to control excretion, circulation, and gastric secretion.
1. one
2. two
3. three
4. four
Observe the following diagram and answer the following question :
Structure E connects :-
1. Middle ear cavity to nasal cavity
2. Middle ear cavity to internal ear
3. Middle ear cavity to pharynx
4. Middle ear cavity to external auditory meatus
Find out the correct match from the following table:
Column-I |
Column-II |
Column-III |
|
(i) |
Heart |
Atrial natriuretic factor |
Decreases blood pressure |
(ii) |
Kidney |
Erythropoietin |
Formation of RBC |
(iii) |
Gastro-intestinal tract |
Gastrin |
Induces gastric secretion |
1. (ii) and (iii)
2. (i) and (iii)
3. (i) and (ii)
4. (i), (ii), and (iii)
In the following chemical reaction:
x is:
1. Ca
2.
3.
4. CaC
Scurvy is caused due to the deficiency of vitamin:-
1. | B2 | 2. | B12 |
3. | C | 4. | D |
In diborane, the two H – B – H angles are nearly
1. 60°, 120°
2. 97°, 122°
3. 95°, 150°
4. 120°, 180°
, The Product 'D' is
1. Butanal
2. n-butyl alcohol
3. n-propyl alcohol
4. Isopropyl alcohol
If uncertainty in position and momentum of a particle of mass 'm' are equal then minimum uncertainty in velocity will be
1.
2.
3.
4. m
You are given 500 mL of 2N HCl and 500 mL of 5N HCl. What will be the maximum volume of 3 M HCl that you can make from these two solutions?
1. 250 mL
2. 750 mL
3. 500 mL
4. 1000 mL
How many stereo-isomer does this molecule have
1. 8
2. 2
3. 4
4. 6
What is the potential energy of an electron present in the N-shell of the ion?
1. –3.4 eV
2. –6.8 eV
3. –13.6 eV
4. –27.2 eV
For a given solution pH = 6.9 at 60°C where = . The solution is
1. Acidic
2. Alkaline
3. Neutral
4. Unpredictable
How many moles of potassium chlorate need to be heated to produce 11.2 liters of oxygen at NTP?
1.
2.
3.
4.
The reaction occurs by the following mechanism:-
i.
ii.
iii.
What is the rate law for this reaction:-
1. R=k[Z]
2.
3. R=k[N]
4. R=k[X] [Y] [Z]
In the Iso-electronic series of metal carbonyls, the C-O bond strength is expected to increase in the order:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
What will be the molar conductivity of ions at infinite dilution if molar conductivity of Al2(SO4)3 is 858 S and ionic conductance of at infinite dilution?
1.
2.
3.
4.
The major product in the following reaction is-
1. | 2. | ||
3. | 4. |
Which of the following is the correct order of decreasing reactivity?
1.
2.
3.
4.
For a certain gaseous reaction rise of temperature from doubles the rate of reaction. What is the value of activation energy:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
The amount of charge required for the oxidation of 1 mol of H2O2 to O2 is:
1. 9.65×104 C
2. 93000 C
3. 1.93×105 C
3. 19.3 × 102 C
The bonds present in borazole are:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
An element occurring in the bcc structure has unit cells. The total number of atoms of the element in these cells will be:
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which of the following organometallic compound is bonded:-
1. [Fe(5-C5H5)2]
2. K[PtCl3(2-C2H4)]
3. [Co(CO)5HN3]+2
4. Fe(CH3)3
By how much will the potential of half-cell | Cu change, if the solution is diluted to 100 times at 298 K?
1. Increases by 59 mV
2. Decreases by 59 mV
3. Increases by 29.5 mV
4. Decreases by 29.5 mV
Salvarsan is arsenic-containing drug which was first used for the treatment of:
1. Syphilis
2. Typhoid
3. Meningitis
4. Dysentry
Under influence of electric field the particles in a sol migrate towards cathode. Same sol is coagulated using NaCl, solutions. Their flocculation values will be in order:
1.
2.
3.
4.
reacts with acidified in etheral solution to give deep blue solution of:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
The correct order of tendency to get oxidize is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Among the following complexes the one which shows zero CFSE (crystal field stabilisation energy) is:-
1. [Fe(H2O)6]+3
2. [Mn(H2O)6]+3
3. [Co(H2O)6]+2
4. [Co(H2O)6]+3
How many P-O-P linkages are present in :
1. 4
2. 2
3. 6
4. 10
The hybrid states of central atom in diborane, diamond and graphite are respectively:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
Product B is:-
1.
2.
3.
4. Both (1) & (2)
Hydrated alumina converted in anhydrous alumina then process is known as:
1. Calcination
2. Roasting
3. Smelting
4. Concentration
Which is most reactive derivatives?
1. R-COCl
2.
3. RCOOR
4.
Product is:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
Total vapour pressure of mixture of 1 mol X and 2 mol Y is 240 torr. In this case -
1. | There is a negative deviation from Raoult's law |
2. | There is a positive deviation from Raoult's law |
3. | There is no deviation from Raoult's law |
4. | Can not be decided |
A gas 'X' is dissolved in water at 2 bar pressure. Its mole fraction is 0.02 in solution. The mole fraction of water when the pressure of gas is doubled at the same temperature is:
1. 0.04
2. 0.98
3. 0.96
4. 0.02
In the given reaction:-
what are A, B and C respectively?
1.
2.
3.
4.
Iron forms a sulphide with formula . Iron exist in both +2 and +3 oxidation states. The ratio of Fe(II) atoms to Fe(III) atoms is:
1. 3:4
2. 4:3
3. 2:5
4. 5:2
Which sequence of the following, in terms of boiling point, is correct?
1.
2.
3.
4.
The pair of isochoric among the transformation of state is:
1. K to L and L to M
2. L to M and N to K
3. L to M and M to N
4. M to N and N to K
Which among these can exhibit tautomerism?
1. a only
2. b only
3. c only
4. a and c
The three lanthanides that show a +2 oxidation state are:
1. Sm, Tb, Gd
2. Sm, Eu, Yb
3. La, Gd, Lu
4. Yb, Pm, Sm
Which group of elements belong to the same period in periodic table:-
1. Li, Na, K
2. Cu, Ag, Au
3. Sn, Sb, Te
4. Al, Ga, Ge
Calculate the compressibility factor for if 1 mole of it occupies 0.35 L at 300 K and 50 atm pressure:
1. 0.71
2. 1
3. 0.1
4. 1.41
Calculate the weight of Fe obtained by reducing 1 kg of ferric oxide:-
1. 0.3 kg
2. 0.5 kg
3. 0.4 kg
4. 0.7 kg
In a 0.25 L tube dissociation of 4 mol of NO is taking place. If its degree of dissociation is 10%. The value of for the reaction is:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
The half-life of the two samples is 0.1 and 0.4 seconds, respectively. Their concentrations are 200 and 50, respectively. The order of the reactions will be:
1. 0
2. 2
3. 1
4. 4
A charge \(q_1=5 \times 10^{-8} \mathrm{~C}\) is kept at 3 cm from a charge \(q_2=-2 \times 10^{-8} \mathrm{~C}\). The potential energy of the system relative to the potential energy at infinite separation is:
1. 3 x J
2. –3 x J
3. 9 x J
4. –9 x J
The linear velocity of a rotating body is given by , where is the angular velocity and is the radius vector. The angular velocity of a body is and the radius vector is , then is:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
A student measures the mass of an object five times. The data are 2.46 kg, 2.47 kg, 2.42 kg, 2.41 kg and 2.44 kg. The reported mean mass with error should be:
1. 2.44 0.01 kg
2. 2.44 0.02 kg
3. 2.44 0.03 kg
4. 2.44 0.04 kg
In a region an electric field making an angle 30 with the horizontal plane is present. A ball having charge 2 C and mass 3 kg is projected with speed 20 m/s at an angle 30 with the horizontal, the horizontal range of the projectile in metre is:-
1. 40
2.
3.
4.
A conducting sphere with a charge Q is surrounded by an uncharged concentric conducting spherical shell. The potential difference between the sphere and the shell is V. If the shell is now given a charge of –3Q, the new potential difference between them is:-
1. V
2. 2V
3. 4V
4. –2V
A battery consists of a variable number \(n\) of identical cells having equal internal resistance connected in series. The terminals of the battery are short-circuited and the current \(I\) measured. Which one of the graphs below shows the correct relationship between \(I\) and \(n?\)
1. | 2. | ||
3. | 4. |
Suppose you are riding a bike with a speed of 20 m/s due east relative to a person A who is walking on the ground towards the east. If your friend B walking on the ground due west measures your speed as 30 m/s due east, find the relative velocity between two reference frames A and B:-
1. The velocity of A with respect to B is 5 m/s towards the east
2. The velocity of A with respect to B is 5 m/s towards the west
3. The velocity of A with respect to B is 10 m/s towards the east
4. The velocity of A with respect to B is 10 m/s towards the west
A boat is moving with a velocity with respect to the river. If the boat reaches the exact opposite point on the other shore, then which of the following options is possible for the velocity of the river?
1.
2.
3.
4.
The position vector of a moving particle at time t is . Its displacement during the time interval, t = 1 s to t = 3 s is :
1.
2.
3.
4.
In figure three capacitors are joined to a battery. With symbols having their usual meaning, the correct conditions will be
1.
2.
3.
4.
A 100 kg gun fires a ball of 1 kg horizontally from a cliff at a height of 500 m. It falls on the ground at a distance of 400 m from the bottom of the cliff. The recoil velocity of the gun is: (Take g = 10 m/s2)
1. 0.2 m/s
2. 0.4 m/s
3. 0.6 m/s
4. 0.8 m/s
A metal sphere is suspended from a wall by a string. The forces acting on the sphere are shown in the figure. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
1. |
\(\vec N+\vec T+\vec W=0\) |
2. | \(T^2=N^2+W^2\) |
3. | \(T = N + W\) | 4. | \(N = W \tan \theta\) |
The resistances of three parts of a circular loop are as shown in the figure. What will be the magnetic field at the centre of O
(current enters at A and leaves at B and C as shown)?
1.
2.
3.
4. 0
A water pump rated 400 W has an efficiency of 75%. If it is employed to raise water to a height of 40 m, then the volume of water drawn in 10 min is:
1. | 10.9 m3 | 2. | 0.45 m3 |
3. | 1.8 m3 | 4. | 0.25 m3 |
An electron is revolving in a circular path of radius 2.0 × m with a uniform speed of 3 × m/s. The magnetic induction at the center of the circular path will be:-
1. 0
2. 1.2 x T
3. 0.6 T
4. 1.2 T
At any place on earth, the horizontal component of the earth's magnetic field is times the vertical component. The angle of dip at that place will be
1. 60°
2. 45°
3. 90°
4. 30°
A block of mass m is pulled by a force of constant power P placed on a rough horizontal plane. The friction coefficient between the block and the surface is µ. Maximum velocity of the block will be
1.
2.
3.
4.
Two particles of masses 4 kg & 8 kg are separated by a distance of 12 m. If they are moving towards each other under the influence of a mutual force of attraction, then the two particles will meet each other at a distance of-
1. 6 m from 8 kg mass
2. 2 m from 8 kg mass
3. 4 m from 8 kg mass
4. 8 m from 8 kg mass
Two rails of a railway track, insulated from each other and the ground, are connected to a millivoltmeter. What is the reading of the millivoltmeter when a train travels at a speed of 20 m/s along the track? Given that the vertical component of the earth's magnetic field is and the rails are separated by 1 m
1. 4 mV
2. 0.4 mV
3. 80 mV
4. 10 mV
What inductance would be needed to store 1.0 kWh of energy in a coil carrying a 200 A current?
1. 90 H
2. 90 mH
3. 180 H
4. 180 mH
A choke coil is preferred to a rheostat in AC circuit because:-
1. it consumes almost zero power
2. it increases current
3. it increases power
4. it increases voltage
A uniform disc of mass m and radius R is rolling down a rough inclined plane which makes an angle 30° with the horizontal. If the coefficients of static and kinetic friction are each equal to µ and the only forces acting are gravitational and frictional, then the magnitude of the frictional force acting on the disc is:-
1. (mg/3) upwards
2. (mg/3) downwards
3. (mg/6) upwards
4. (mg/6) downwards
A particle moving in a circular path has an angular momentum L. If the frequency of rotation is halved, then its angular momentum becomes:-
1. L/2
2. L
3. L/3
4. L/4
Two similar rods are joined as shown in the figure. Assume no heat loss through the lateral surface of rod and temperatures at the ends are shown in steady state. Then the temperature of the junction is:-
1. 50°C
2. 75°C
3. 66.6°C
4. 33.3°C
A uniform tube is shown in the figure which is open at one end and closed at the other. To enclose a column of air inside the tube, a pellet of mercury is introduced. If the length of air column at 27°C is 18 cm, at what temperature its length will be 21.6 cm?
1. 87°C
2. 91°C
3. 85°C
4. 97°C
Carnot cycle (reversible) of a gas, represented by a pressure-volume curve is shown in the diagram.
Consider the following statements:-
I. Area ABCD = Work done on the gas
II. Area ABCD = Net heat absorbed
III. Change in the internal energy in cycle = 0
Which of these is correct?
1. I only
2. II only
3. II and III
4. I, II and III
The figure shows a polytropic process for an ideal gas. The work done by the gas will be in process AB is
1.
2.
3.
4. Insufficient information
If the same amount of heat is supplied to two spheres of the same material having the same radius (one is hollow and the other is solid), then:
1. | the expansion in hollow is greater than the expansion in solid |
2. | the expansion in hollow is the same as that in solid |
3. | the expansion in hollow is lesser than in solid |
4. | the temperature of both must be the same |
The angular resolution of a 10 cm diameter telescope for the wavelength of 5000 Å is of the order:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
Four convergent lenses have focal lengths 100 cm, 10 cm, 4 cm, and 0.3 cm. For a telescope with maximum possible magnification, we choose the lenses of focal lengths:-
1. 100 cm, 0.3 cm
2. 10 cm, 0.3 cm
3. 10 cm, 4 cm
4. 100 cm, 4 cm
A light ray from the air is incident (as shown in the figure) at one end of glass fibre (refractive index µ = 1.5) making an incidence angle of 60° on the lateral surface so that it undergoes a total internal reflection. How much time would it take to traverse the straight fibre of a length of 1 km?
1. 3.33
2. 6.67
3. 5.77
4. 3.85
The radius of a soap bubble is increased from 1/ cm to 2/ cm. If the surface tension of the soap solution is 30 dynes per cm, then the work done will be:
1. 180 ergs
2. 360 ergs
3. 720 ergs
4. 960 ergs
A raft of mass 600 kg floats in calm water with 7 cm submerged. When a man stands on the raft, 8.4 cm is submerged, the man's mass is
1. 30 kg
2. 60 kg
3. 90 kg
4. 120 kg
The breaking stress of a wire going over a smooth pulley in the following question is 2 × N/. What would be the minimum radius of the wire used if it is not to break?
1. | \(0.46\times10^{-6}m\) | 2. | \(0.46\times10^{-4}m\) |
3. | \(0.46\times10^{8}m\) | 4. | \(0.46\times10^{-11}m\) |
A body of mass m is situated at a distance 4 above the Earth's surface, where is the radius of the Earth. What minimum energy should be given to the body so that it may escape?
1. | mgRe | 2. | 2mgRe |
3. | mgRe/5 | 4. | mgRe/16 |
The displacement-time graph of a particle executing SHM is shown in the figure. Its displacement equation is (Time period = 2 second)
1.
2.
3.
4.
A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by monochromatic light of wavelengths and /2. If the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the second case is three times that in the first case, the work function of the surface is:-
1. hc/2
2. 3hc/
3. hc/3
4. hc/
In nuclear reaction , B denotes
1. Electron
2. Positron
3. Proton
4. Neutron
Given the value of Rydberg constant is , the wavenumber of the last line of the Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum will be:-
1.
2.
3.
4.
The correct graph between the maximum energy of a photoelectron \(\left(K_{max}\right)\) and the inverse of the wavelength \(\left(\frac{1}{\lambda}\right)\) of the incident radiation is given by the curve:
1. | \(A\) | 2. | \(B\) |
3. | \(C\) | 4. | None of these |
When height increases, the velocity of sound decreases:
1. | due to the decrease in pressure. |
2. | due to a decrease in temperature. |
3. | as a result of a decrease in both temperature and pressure |
4. | statement is wrong. |
A sound source is moving on a circular path of radius R with the constant angular speed in an anticlockwise direction and emits a frequency n. An observer performs simple harmonic motion along the path QPR with time period T = 2 as shown in the figure. If at t = 0, source is at A and observer is at Q and assume OP is very large as compared to radius R and QP, then -
1. The observer will hear maximum frequency at P if source is at B.
2. The observer will hear maximum frequency at P if source is at D.
3. The observer will hear maximum frequency at Q if source is at B.
4. The observer will hear maximum frequency at Q if source is at D.
The depletion layer in the P–N junction region is caused by:
1. | the drift of holes |
2. | diffusion of charge carriers |
3. | migration of impurity ions |
4. | drift of electrons |
With reference to the figure, which of the following is possible?
1. A = 0, B = 0, X = 1
2. A = 0, B = 1, X = 0
3. A = 1, B = 0, X = 0
4. A = 1, B = 1, X = 0
In the given circuit, PN-junction diodes are ideal. For the following potential of A and B, the correct increasing order of resistance between A and B will be:
i. –10V, –5V
ii. –5V, –10V
iii. –4V, –12V
1. (i) < (ii) < (iii)
2. (iii) < (ii) < (i)
3. (ii) = (iii) < (i)
4. (i) = (iii) < (ii)