Large amoeboid cells, that are a part of our innate immune system, found in the areolar tissue are called as:
1. Macrophages
2. Mast cells
3. Fibroblasts
4. Adipocytes
In cockroach, the formation of ootheca is by the secretions of:
1. Prothoracic glands of male
2. Prothoracic glands of female
3. Colleterial glands of male
4. Colleterial glands of female
Bipolar neurons are found in humans in:
1. Brain
2. Spinal cord
3. Embryonic stages
4. Olfactory epithelium
The myelin sheath in the CNS is synthesized by:
1. Oligodendrocytes
2. Astrocytess
3. Schwann cells
4. Microglia
All of the following structures are derived from mesoderm except the ____.
1. pancreas
2. dermis of skin
3. notochord
4. heart
What is incorrect regarding Periplaneta americana?
1. Excretion by malpighian tubules
2. Hemolymph delivering oxygen to tissues
3. Paurometabolous development
4. Mosaic vision
Dense irregular connective tissue is present in:
1. Tendons
2. Ligaments
3. Skin
4. Cartilage
The most abundant and widely distributed tissue in the bodies of complex animals is:
1. Epithelium
2. Connective
3. Muscular
4. Neural
The mouth part of the cockroach shown in the given diagram acts as a/an:
1. Upper lip
2. Tongue
3. Lower lip
4. Uvula
Which type of animal tissue changes the diameter of a blood vessel?
(1) Epithelium
(2) Connective
(3) Muscle
(4) Neural
Sperms are stored in?
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
In the given diagram of areolar tissue, identify a phagocytic cell :
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
The epithelium shown in the given diagram is found in :
1. Proximal convoluted Tubule
2. Small intestine
3. Fallopian tube
4. Thyroid follicle cells
Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II regarding morphology of earthworm and choose your answer from the codes given below :
Column I |
Column II |
||
I. |
Clitellum |
1. |
14-16 |
II. |
Male genital pore |
2. |
18 |
III. |
Female genital pore |
3. |
5-9 |
IV. |
Spermathecal apertures |
4. |
14 |
Codes :
I |
II |
III |
IV |
|
1. |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
2. |
2 |
1 |
4 |
3 |
3. |
2 |
1 |
3 |
4 |
4. |
1 |
2 |
4 |
3 |
Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II and choose your answer from the codes given below :
Column I |
Column II |
||
I. |
Simple squamous |
1. |
Fallopian tubes |
II. |
Ciliated |
2. |
Blood vessels |
III. |
Translational |
3. |
Trachea |
IV. |
Pseudostratified |
4. |
Urinary bladder |
I |
II |
III |
IV |
|
1. |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
2. |
2 |
1 |
4 |
3 |
3. |
2 |
1 |
3 |
4 |
4. |
1 |
2 |
4 |
3 |
Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II regarding anatomy of cockroach and choose your answer from the codes given below :
|
Column I |
|
Column II |
I. |
Testes |
1. |
2nd to 6th |
II. |
Ovaries |
2. |
4th to 6th |
III. |
Spermatheca |
3. |
6th |
IV. |
Mushroom gland |
4. |
6th-7th |
|
I |
II |
III |
IV |
1. |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
2. |
2 |
1 |
4 |
3 |
3. |
2 |
1 |
3 |
4 |
4. |
1 |
2 |
4 |
3 |
Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II regarding and choose your answer from the codes given below :
Column I |
Column II |
||
I. |
Nereis |
1. |
Gills |
II. |
Prawn |
2. |
Parapodia |
III. |
Earthworm |
3. |
Skin |
IV. |
Cockroach |
4. |
Trachea |
I |
II |
III |
IV |
|
1. |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
2. |
2 |
1 |
4 |
3 |
3. |
2 |
1 |
3 |
4 |
4. |
1 |
2 |
4 |
3 |
Match each item in Column I with one item in Column II regarding and choose your answer from the codes given below :
|
Column I |
|
Column II |
I. |
Otoconia |
1. |
Nasal epithelium |
II. |
Bowman’s gland |
2. |
Utricle |
III. |
Cupula |
3. |
Scala media |
IV. |
Endolymph |
4. |
Semi-circular canals |
|
I |
II |
III |
IV |
1. |
1 |
2 |
3 |
4 |
2. |
2 |
1 |
4 |
3 |
3. |
2 |
1 |
3 |
4 |
4. |
1 |
2 |
4 |
3 |
Which of the following is not a feature of birds?
1. Forelimbs modified into wings
2. Single occipital condyle
3. Ten pairs of cranial nerves
4. Four-chambered heart
In some Bilateria, the body is of many segments that show serial repetition of parts. Such segments are called as:
1. Myotomes
2. Metameres
3. Proglottides
4. Comb plates
The phylum with exclusively marine animals is:
1. Porifera
2. Cnidaria
3. Ctenophora
4. Platyhelminthes
Chordates are not characterized by:
(1) Ventral nerve cord
(2) Post anal tail
(3) Gill slits
(4) A notochord
Notochord is derived from embryonic:
1. Ectoderm
2. Mesoderm
3. Endoderm
4.Ectoderm and Mesoderm
Identify the phylum where the body cavity is not lined by mesoderm, instead, the mesoderm is present as scattered pouches between ectoderm and endoderm?
1. Cnidaria
2. Platyhelminthes
3. Molluska
4. Aschelminthes
What is present between ectoderm and endoderm in diploblastic animals?
1. Mesenteron
2. Mesenchyme
3. Mesorchium
4. Mesoglea
“Amniotes” do not include:
1. Amphibians
2. Reptiles
3. Birds
4. Mammals
The presence of mutable collagenous tissue is an important feature of:
(1) Annelida
(2) Echinodermata
(3) Porifera
(4) Molluska
Closed circulatory system is not seen in:
(1) Vertebrates
(2) Annelids
(3) Cephalopod Mollusks
(4) Aquatic Arthropods
Which of the following statements is not true about Nematodes?
1. They are bilaterally symmetrical, un-segmented worms.
2. They are covered with a flexible, thick cuticle that is molted four times as they grow.
3. They possess cilia or flagella on their reproductive cells.
4. They possess a hydrostatic skeleton.
What is not true regarding Cnidarians?
1. | Body is made up of distinct tissues but true organs have not evolved |
2. | They are carnivores |
3. | They may have two body forms – polyps and medusa |
4. | The digestion is completely intra-cellular |
Radially symmetrical animals:
1. Are all triploblastic
2. Tend to be sessile and passively floating
3. Have a definite head and a brain
4. Have an anterior and a posterior end
Ascaris is characterized by:
1. Presence of true coelom but an absence of metamerism
2. Presence of true coelom and of metamerism
3. Absence of true coelom but the presence of metamerism
4. Presence of neither true coelom nor metamerism
Identify the chordates in which the notochord persists in the adult?
(1) Tunicates
(2) Lancelets
(3) Cyclostomata
(4) Bony fishes
An important evolutionary transition that appeared for the first time in Echinoderms is:
1. | Bilateral symmetry | 2. | Radial symmetry |
3. | Tube within a tube plan | 4. | Endoskeleton |
How many of the given animals do not possess a true coelom?
Pila, Asterias, Balanoglossus, Ascidia, Aplysia, Ophiura, Wuchereria, Limulus, Antedon, Dentallium, Nereis
(1) 1
(2) 5
(3) 6
(4) 7
Which of the following is not a feature of Ctenophora?
1. Diploblastic organisms with tissue level of organization
2. Absence of Cnidocytes
3. Presence of internal ciliated comb plates
4. Bio-luminescence well marked in some members
Which of the following sets contains all animals belonging to the same Class?
(1) Columba, Struthio, Aptenodytes, Pteropus
(2) Bangarus, Chelone, Neophron, Testudo
(3) Petromyzon, Myxine, Doliolum, Salpa
(4) Exocoetus, Hippocampus, Betta, Pterophyllum
Identify the incorrect statement regarding Osteichthyes?
(1) Gills with operculum
(2) Skin covered by placoid scales
(3) Presence of swim bladder
(4) Mostly oviparous
In Amphibia:
I. Skin is moist without scales
II. A tympanum represents the ear
III. Fertilization is external
1. Only I and II are correct.
2. Only I and III are correct.
3. Only II and III are correct.
4. I, II, and III are correct.
In which of the following animals, the body is cylindrical and is composed of an anterior proboscis, a collar, and a long trunk?
1. Hemichordates
2. Urochordates
3. Cephalochordates
4. Vertebrate chordates
Perhaps the biggest reason for the enormous success of Arthropods is?
1. Chitinous exoskeleton
2. Diverse appendages
3. Respiration by tracheoles
4. Internal fertilization
Development takes place through a trochophore or veliger larva in:
(1) Annelida
(2) Molluska
(3) Arthropoda
(4) Echinodermata
The most important reason for the fact that reptiles were the first animals to be successful on land is:
1. Internal fertilization
2. Skin covered with scales
3. Partially divided ventricles
4. Presence of amnion
A sort of alternation and generation seen in Cnidarians is termed as:
1. Metamorphosis
2. Epiboly
3. Metagenesis
4. Anagenesis
Pinworm, Hookworm and Filaria worm belong to:
1. Annelida
2. Platyhelminthes
3. Aschelminthes
4. Arthropoda
According to the Central Pollution Control Board, particles that are responsible for causing great harm to human health are of diameter
1. 2.50 µm
2. 5.00 µm
3. 10.00 µm
4. 7.5 µm
Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiles for reducing emission of poisonous gases. The converters are made up of metals namely
1. Fe, Cu and Rh
2. Pt, Pd and Rh
3. Al, Pd and Th
4. Fe, Cu and Pd
Identify 1., 2., 3. and 4. in the diagram
1. 1.–Dirty air; 2.– Water/lime spray ; 3.– Clean air; 4. – Particulate matter
2. 1.–Clean air; 2.– Water/lime spray ; 3.– Particulate matter; 4. – Dirty air
3. 1.–Water/lime spray; 2.– Particulate matter; 3.– Clean air; 4. – Dirty air
4. 1.–Particulate matter; 2.– Dirty air ; 3.– Clean air; 4. – Water/lime spray
Which is incorrect about electrostatic precipitator (ESP)?
1. Corona produces electrons
2. Collecting plates are grounded, so use to attract the charged dust particle
3. Velocity of air between the plates must be low
4. Electrode wires that are maintained at several thousand volts produces corona
What is/are done by catalytic converters?
(1) Unburnt hydrocarbons are converted to CO2 and H2O
(2) CO is converted to CO2
(3) Nitric oxide is changed to N2 gas
(4) All of these
According to Euro-III norms, sulphur should be controlled at ______ in diesel and _____ in petrol
1. 350 ppm; 50 ppm
2. 50 ppm; 150 ppm
3. 50 ppm; 50 ppm
4. 350 ppm; 150 ppm
Which of the following causes thinning of fish eating bird’s egg shell and their premature breaking?
(1) DDT
(2) Mercury
(3) Faecal matter
(4) Paper fibres
Find the correct match
(1) Black foot disease - Cadmium
(2) Itai-itai - Arsenic
(3) Minimata - Nitrate
(4) Hardened bones - Fluoride
Cultural (Accelerated) eutrophication is
(1) Natural ageing of lake
(2) Aging process of water body due to pollutants from man’s activities like effluents from industries and homes
(3) Natural conversion of water body into land
(4) Less algal growth in water body
Select the correct statements from the following
a. Thermal waste water eliminates or reduces the number of organisms sensitive to high temperature
b. In a young lake, the water is cold and clear supporting the little life
c. DDT disturbs calcium anabolism to birds, which causes thinning of eggshell and their premature
breaking, eventually causing decline in bird’s population
d. Terror of Bengal grows abundantly in eutrophic water bodies
1. a and b 2. c and d
3. a and d 4. All of these
The presence of large amount of nutrients in water causes excessive growth of planktonic (free floating) algae, which gives a distinct colour to water. This is called
(1) Red tide
(2) Biomagnification
(3) Algal bloom
(4) Biofortification
Increase in concentration of the toxic substances at successive trophic levels is known as
(1) Biofortification
(2) Biowar
(3) Bioinformatics
(4) Biomagnification
Which of the following statements about eutrophication are true?
a. It is a naturally occurring process
b. It is commonly found in standing rather than running water
c. It can lead to oxygen depletion
d. It is commonly associated with high levels of nitrates and sulphates
e. It is commonly associated with high levels of phosphates and nitrates
1. All of these 2. a, b, c and d
3. b, c and d 4. a, b, c and e
Measuring biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) is a method used for
(1) Estimating the amount of organic matter in sewage water
(2) Working out the efficiency of oil-driven automobiles engines
(3) Measuring the activity of Saccharomyces cerevisae in producing curd on a commercial scale
(4) Working out the efficiency of RBCs about their capacity to carry oxygen
Integrated organic farming is
(1) Cyclical process
(2) Zero waste procedure
(3) Maximum utilisation of resource
(4) All of these
Treatment of e-wastes includes
(1) Buried in landfills
(2) Incineration
(3) Recycling
(4) All of these
Find the incorrect statement
(1) Sanitary landfills were adopted as the substitute for open burning dumps
(2) Seepage of chemical from landfills pollutes the underground water resources
(3) All waste that we generate can be categorised into three types, that is, bio-degradable, recyclable and non-biodegradable
(4) Open dumps inhibitsbreeding of rats and flies
How deep should nuclear waste after sufficient pre-treatment be buried (in shielded containers) within the rocks below the earth’s surface?
(1) 100 m
(2) 200 m
(3) 300 m
(4) 500 m
Eco-san toilets are not associated with which of the following?
(1) Working is Sri Lanka and Kerala
(2) Composting method for recycling of human excreta
(3) Recycled material forms natural fertiliser
(4) Enhance the need for chemical fertilisers
What did Chernobyl,Three mile Island and Bhopal all have in common?
(1) They all qualified as technological disasters
(2) They all are involved in environmental racism
(3) Environmental problems were caused by economic development in all these places
(4) Nuclear disasters took place in all these places
Prolonged water logging in agricultural fields is likely to create the problem of
(1) Poor aeration and low salinity
(2) Poor aeration and high salinity
(3) Poor aeration and high acidity
(4) Metal toxicity and proper aeration
Which of the following figures shows correct relative contribution of greenhouse gases to global warming?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
In human eye, cornea absorbs UV-B radiation, and a high dose of UV-B causes inflammation of cornea, a disease known as
(1) Night-blindness
(2) Xerophthalmia
(3) Epicanthus
(4) Snow-blindness
The presence of ozone (O3) in the stratosphere of atmosphere
(1) Hinders higher rate of photosynthesis
(2) Helps in checking the penetration of ultra-violet rays to earth
(3) Has been responsible for increasing the average global temperature in recent years
(4) Is advantageous since it supplies O2 for people travelling in jets
Government of India has recently instituted which award for individuals or communities from rural areas that have shown extra ordinary courage and dedication in protecting wildlife?
(1) Padma Bhushan
(2) Chipko Award
(3) Bharat Ratna
(4) Amrita Devi Bishnoi-Wildlife Protection Award
The Earth Summit, 1992, was held at
(1) Rio de Janeiro
(2) Kyoto
(3) St. Petersburg
(4) Washington
Match column-I with column-II and select the correct option
Column-I Column-II
a. Air (prevention and control of (i) 1987
pollution) Act
b. Water (prevention and control of (ii) 1981
pollution) Act
c. Noise added as air pollutant (iii) 1974
d. Environment (Protection) Act (iv) 1986
1. a – (ii) ;b – (iii) ; c – (i) ; d – (iv)
2. a – (i) ;b – (iii) ; c – (ii) ; d – (iv)
3. a – (iv) ;b – (iii) ; c – (ii) ; d – (i)
4. a – (iv) ;b – (iii) ; c – (i) ; d – (ii)
Select the incorrect statement
1. India has more than 50,000 genetically different strains of rice
2. India has 100 varieties of mango
3. The genetic variation in Rauwolfia vomitoria can be in terms of concentration and potency of reserpine
4. The tropical rainforest initially covered 14% of the land surface of earth, but now they cover only 6% of the land area
Identify a, b, c and d in the given figure.
The pie-chart for the number of species of major taxa of invertebrates represent respectively
1. a – Insects; b – Crustaceans; c. – Molluscs; d – Other animal groups
2. a – Other animal groups; b – Crustaceans; c – Molluscs; d –Insects
3. a –Molluscs; b – Insects; c – Other animal groups; d – Crustaceans
4. a – Insects; b – Molluscs; c – Crustaceans; d – Other animal groups
Which of the following rainforest is home to more than 40,000 species of plants, 3000 of fishes, 1300 of birds, 427 of mammals, 427 of amphibians, 378 of reptiles and more than 1,25,000 invertebrates?
1. Amazonian
2. Tropical
3. Arctic tundra
4. Temperate
Find the false statement
(1) The number of fungi species is more than the combined total of the species of fishes, amphibians, reptiles and mammals
(2) Conventional taxonomic methods are not suitable for identifying microbial species.
(3) For many taxonomic groups, species inventories are more complete in temperate than in tropical countries.
(4) Insects form 70% part of all the species recorded
Find the true statement
a. If we consider biochemical or molecular criteria for microorganisms, their diversity may run into
millions.
b. There are 12 mega diversity centres in the world.
c. If we accept May’s global estimates, only 8.1 per cent of the total species have been recorded so far.
d. Western Ghats have greater amphibian species diversity than Eastern Ghats.
1. a and b 2. Only d
3. a and d 4. a, b and d
India has only ______ per cent of the world’s land area; its share of the global species diversity is an impressive _____ per cent
Find the incorrect statements
(1) India has nearly 45,000 species of plants and twice as many of animals
(2) A forest in a tropical region like equator has 10 times as many species of vascular plants as a forest of equal area in a temperate region like the mid-west of the US.
(3) Greenland 710N has only 56 species of birds.
(4) The diversity of plant and animals is uniform throughout the world.
The graph formed by plotting species richness against area for a wide variety of taxa (angiosperm plants, birds, bats, fresh water fishes, etc.) turns out to be a
(1) Parabola
(2) Straight line
(3) Rectangular hyperbola
(4) Any of these
Species diversity _______ as we move away from the equator towards the poles
(1) Increase
(2) Decrease
(3) First increases than decreases
(4) First decreases then increases
Which of the following factor has not aided in high species diversity of tropics?
(1) Less seasonal variation promoting niche specialisation
(2) Availability of more solar energy
(3) Less competition
(4) Constant environmental condition
From the following statements you have to select the right option that mentions observations shown by David Tillman, who performed long term ecosystem experiment using outdoor plots?
a. Plots with more species showed less year-to-year variation in total biomass
b. Plots with less species showed less year-to-year variation in total biomass
c. Increased diversity contributed to higher productivity
d. Plots with more species showed year-to-year variation in total rainfall
1. a and c 2. a and d
3. b and d 4. a, c and d
Which hypothesis suggest ecosystems are like aeroplane where flight (ecosystem functioning) may or may not be compromised depending upon which species are lost?
(1) Rivet popper hypothesis
(2) Gaia hypothesis
(3) Gause exclusion hypothesis
(4) Odum’s hypothesis
Match the following Column-I (recently extinct animals) with Column-II (places from where they are extinct) and select the correct option
Column-I Column-II
a. Dodo (i) Mauritius
b. Quagga (ii) Africa
c. Thylacine (iii) Australia
d. Sea cow (iv) Russia
1. a – (i) ;b – (ii) ; c – (iii) ; d – (iv)
2. a – (i) ;b – (ii) ; c – (iv) ; d – (iii)
3. a – (ii) ;b – (i) ; c – (iii) ; d – (iv)
4. a – (ii) ;b – (i) ; c – (iv) ; d – (iii)
The Evil Quartet is the sobriquet used to describe
(1) Population growth
(2) Causes of biodiversity losses
(3) Water pollutants
(4) DO of water body
Find the false statement
a. In the last 27 years, there is disappearance of 27 species
b. Three species (Bali, java and Caspian) of tiger are included in recently extinct animals
c. If we apply May’s estimate, then there are probably more than 1,00,000 plants species in India that are yet to be discovered and described.
d. There is more solar energy available in tropics, which contribute to higher productivity, this in turn
contributes directly to greater diversity
1. Only a 2. c and d
3. b and d 4. a and c
Read the following statements and chooser the correct option
Statement A: Electrostatic precipitator can remove over 99% particulate matter present in exhaust from a thermal power plant.
Statement B: According to CPCB particulate size 2.5m or less in diameter are responsible for causing the greatest harm to human health.
1. Only statement A is correct.
2. Only statement B is correct.
3. Both statements A and B are correct.
4. Both statements A and B are incorrect.
State True (T) or False (F) for the following statements and select the correct option
A. Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converter should use unleaded petrol because lead in the petrol inactivates the catalyst.
B. Recently government of India has instituted the Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award for
individuals from urban areas that have shown extraordinary courage and dedication in protecting
wildlife.
C. Reforestation may occur naturally in a deforested area.
A B C
1. T T F
2. T F T
3. T F F
4. F F T
Select the correct option regarding relative contribution of various greenhouse gases to total global warming.
1.
2.
3.
4.
Heat of the neutralization is greater than 13.7 kcal in -
1. HF & NH4OH
2. HCl & NaOH
3. HI & KOH
4. HF & NaOH
A solid has a structure in which W atoms are located at the corners of a cubic lattice. Oxygen atom at the centre of the edges and Na atom at centre of the cube. The formula of the compound is
1. NaWO2
2. NaWO3
3. Na2WO3
4. NaWO4
An element (atomic mass = 100 g/mole) having a BCC structure has a unit cell edge of 400 pm. The density of the element is :
1. 2.14 g/cm3
2. 5.20 g/cm3
3. 7.28 g/cm3
4. 10.37 g/cm3
The radius of Ag+ ion is 126 pm and that I- ion is 216 pm. The coordination number of Ag+ ion is
1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 8
Analysis shows that an oxide ore of nickel has formula Ni0.98O1.00. The percentage of nickel as Ni3+ ions is nearly
1. 2
2. 96
3. 4
4. 98
The minimum distance between two tetrahedral voids is (a = cell edge length)
1. a
2
2. a
√2
3. a
√3
4. √3 a
2
In which of the following
crystals are alternate tetrahedral voids occupied:
1. NaCl
2. ZnS
3. CaF2
4. Na2O
Packing fraction in bcc is
1. 0.52
2. 0.74
3. 0.60
4. 0.68
1 mol of NaCl is doped with mol of . Find the concentration of cationic vacancies
1.
2.
3.
4.
An ionic compound occurs is of fcc type crystal structure with B ion at the center of each face and A ion occupying corners of the cube. Give the formula
1.
2.
3.
4.
In a solid AB having NaCl structure, 'A' atoms occupy fcc lattice. If all the face centered atoms along one of the axes are removed then the resultant stoichiometry of the solid is
1.
2.
3.
4.
Packing of fraction of simple cubic crystal lattice is
1. 38%
2. 74%
3. 68%
4. 52.4%
The minimum distance between two tetrahedral voids (a = cell edge length)
1.
2.
3.
4.
The average oxidation number of S in sodium tetrathionate (Na2S4O6) is
1. +2
2. +2.5
3. +3
4. -2
The oxidation number of phosphorus in Ba(H2PO2)2 is
1. +3
2. +2
3. +1
4. -1
For the reaction.
, the equilibrium pressure is 15 atmosphere. The value of Kp is
1. 15
2. 50
3. 500
4. 100
The following reactions are known to occur in the body
.
If CO2 escapes from the system then
1. pH will decrease
2. [H+] will diminish
3. [H2CO3] will remain unchanged
4. The forward reaction will be favoured
Initial concentration of A is equal to that of B. The equilibrium concentration of A and C are equal. Kc is
1. 0.08
2. 0.8
3. 8
4. 80
A certain weak acid has a dissociation constant of 1.0×10-4. The equilibrium constant for its reaction with a strong base is
1. 1.0×10-4
2. 1.0x10-10
3. 1.0x1010
4. 1.0×1014
To 250 ml of M/50 H2SO4, 4 gm of solid NaOH is added and the resulting solution is diluted to one litre. The pH of the resulting solution is
1. 12
2. 12.95
3. 11.95
4. 11
The equilibrium constant (Kp) for the reaction, at 1000K is 3.5 atm-What would be the partial pressure of oxygen gas, if the equilibrium is found to have equal moles of SO2 & SO3?
1. 0.35 atm
2. 3.5 atm
3. 2.85 atm
4. 0.285 atm
When a solution of acetic acid was titrated with NaOH, the pH of the solution when half of the acid is neutralised, was 4.2. Dissociation constant of the acid is
1. 6.31 x 10-5
2. 3.2 x 10-5
3. 8.7 x 10-8
4. 6.42 x 10-4
pH of Ba(OH)2 solution is 12. Its solubility product is
1. 10-6M3
2. 4 x 10-6 M3
3. 5 x 10-7 M3
4. 5 x 10-6 M3
Which mixture acts as buffer ?
1. 50 ml 1M CH3COOH + 100 ml 1M NaOH
2. 50 ml 1M CH3COOH + 25 ml 1M NaOH
3. 50 ml 1M NH4OH + 100 ml 1M HCl
4. 50 ml 1M NH4OH + 25 ml 1M NaOH
In the conversion, H2SO4 H2S2O8 which process occurs?
1. Oxidation
2. Reduction
3. Oxidation as well as reduction
4. Neither oxidation nor reduction
In the reaction, 2Cu+ Cu + Cu2+, the equivalent weight of Cu+ is (M is the mol. wt. of Cu+)
1. M
2.
3.
4. 2 M
Equal volumes of 1M each of KMnO4 and K2Cr2O7 are used to oxidise Fe(II) solution in acidic medium. The amount of Fe oxidised will be
1. More with KMnO4
2. More with K2Cr2O7
3. Equal with both oxidising agent
4. Cannot be determined
100 mL of 0.3 N HCL solution were mixed with 200 mL of 0.6 N H2SO4 solution. The final acidic normality is:
1. 0.9 N
2. 0.6 N
3. 0.5 N
4. 0.4 N
0.84 g of metal carbonate reacts with 40 mL of N/2 H2SO4. The equivalent weight of metal carbonate is:
1. 84 g
2. 64 g
3. 42 g
4. 38 g
The minimum quantity of H2S needed to precipitate 63.5 g of Cu2+ will be nearly:
1. 63.5 g
2. 31.75 g
3. 34 g
4. 20 g
If one mole of H2SO4 reacts with an excess of NaOH, how many moles of water are formed?
1. 2
2. 1
3. 3
4. 4
Molar mass of oxalic acid is 126. The mass of oxalic acid required to neutralise 1000mL of normal solution of NaOH is:
1. 126 g
2. 63 g
3. 6.3 g
4. 12.6 g
The equivalent weight of H3PO2 is (M = mol.wt. of H3PO2 )
1.
2.
3.
4.
, the equivalent weight of H3PO4 will be (M = mol.wt. of H3PO4)
1.
2.
3.
4.
In the reaction , if 2 moles of A, 3.0 moles of B and 2.0 moles of C are placed in a 2.0l flask and the equilibrium concentration of C is 0.5 mole/l. The equilibrium constant () for the reaction is
1. 0.073
2. 0.147
3. 0.05
4. 0.026
A solution of in water acts as acidic due to
1. Hydrolysis of
2. Acidic impurities
3. Dissociation
4. Ionisation
Which is the correct representation of the solubility product constant of
1.
2.
3.
4.
At 25°C, the dissociation constant of a base BOH is . The concentration of Hydroxyl ions in 0.01 M aqueous solution of the base would be
1.
2.
3.
4.
Which equilibrium can be described as an acid-base reaction using the Lewis acid-base definition but not using the Bronsted-Lowry definition
1.
2.
3.
4.
50mL of 2.0 M (molar mass = 158g mol–1) is dilluted to 500mL. Molarity of the resulting solution and the number of moles of are :
1. 2.0 M and 2.0
2. 0.1 M and 0.2
3. 0.2 M and 0.1
4. 0.1 M and 0.1
0.63 g of a diabasic acid is available in 100 mL solution. 20 mL of this solution required 20 mL of M/10 NaOH solution for complete neutralization. The molar mass of the acid is
1. 63 g
2. 126 g
3. 31.5 g
4. 94.5 g
50 mL of 0.2 M NaOH is mixed with 25 mL of 0.2 M . The resulting solution is :
1. acidic, 0.2 M
2. basic, 0.2 M
3. basic, 0.4 M
4. neutral
Ammonium carbamate is in equilibrium with and as:
If total pressure at equilibrium is 3 atm, is:
1. 4
2. 12
3. 36
4. 27
of a weak acid HA which is 0.01% ionised is . Its pH is
1. 1
2. 2
3. 4
4. 5
As per the structure of , the two Cl-atoms have oxidation numbers:
1. 0, 0
2. 0, –1
3. + 1, – 1
4. 0, +1
If the current in an AC circuit is given as when an emf is applied across the circuit. The circuit has components-
1. L and C
2. L and R
3. C and R
4. None of these
A step-down transformer is employed to reduce the main supply of AC from 220V to 11V. If the primary coil draws a current of 5A and the secondary supplies a current of 90A, then the efficiency of the transformer is -
1. 10%
2. 95%
3. 90%
4. 80%
At resonance, the value of the power factor of the circuit is -
1. 1
2. Zero
3. Between zero and 1
4. More than 1
In a LCR circuit having L = 8.0 henry, C = 0.5 and R = 100 in series, the resonance frequency (in Hz) is
1.
2.
3.
4.
In a LCR series network, . The supply voltage is
1. 25V
2. 75V
3. 35V
4. Zero
The ratio of the number of turns in secondary to primary in an ideal transformer varies from 50 to 550. If the power input is P, then its output power is -
1. 11P
2.
3.
4. P
The AC voltage across a resistance can be measured using a :
1. Potentiometer
2. Hotwire voltmeter
3. Moving coil galvanometer
4. Moving magnet galvanometer
Loss in energy in the transformer is due to
1. Hysteresis
2. Eddy current loss
3. Leakage of flux
4. All of these
A biconvex lens of glass has a radius of curvature 20cm. Which one of the following gives the correct position and nature of the image formed when an object is placed at 40cm from the lens?
1. Real, inverted and same size
2. real, inverted and diminished
3. Real, inverted and enlarged
4. Virtual, upright and enlarged
Electrons used in an electron microscope are accelerated by a voltage of 25 kV. If the accelerating voltage is reduced to 6.25 kV, the resolving power of the microscope would:
1. Increase to 4 time
2. Increases to 2 times
3. Decrease to half
4. Decrease to 1/4th
A converging beam of light is incident on a concave lens of focal length 30cm, in such a way that their point of intersection would lie at a height 1cm above the principal axis and at a distance of 24cm from the position of the lens if there was no lens. Find the nature of the image formed when the beam passes through the lens.
1. Real at a distance 60cm from the lens
2. Real at a distance 120cm from the lens
3. Virtual at a distance 60cm from the lens
4. Virtual at a distance 120 cm from the lens
One face of a prism of apex angle 30 is silvered and a ray of light is incident on the first face at an angle i such that it retraces its entire path after reflection from the silvered face. If the refractive index of prism material is 2, then the value of i must be -
1. 45
2. 60
3. 30
4. 90
The focal length of a convex lens is f. An object is placed at a distance x from the focal point and a real image is formed. The linear magnification has a magnitude
1.
2.
3.
4.
The refractive index of the material of the prism for violet colour is 1.69 and that for red is 1.65. If the refractive index for mean colour is 1.66, the dispersive power of the material of the prism
1. 0.66
2. 0.06
3. 0.65
4. 0.69
The sun (diameter D) subtends an angle radian at the pole of a concave mirror of focal length f. The diameter of the image of the sun formed by the mirror is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
When a ray is refracted from one medium to another, the wavelength changes from 6000 to 4000. The critical angle for the interface will be:
1.
2.
3.
4.
The critical angle for prism is 36. The maximum angle of prism for which the emergent ray is possible is:
1.
2.
3.
4.
In a E.M.W, phase difference between and is :
1. zero
2.
3.
4.
The focal length of the plano-convex lens is 20 cm. If its plane surface is silvered, then
1. it behaves as a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm
2. it behaves as a convex mirror of focal length of 10 cm
3. it behaves as a concave mirror of focal length 20 cm
4. none of these
A small telescope has an objective lens of focal length 144 cm and an eye-piece of focal length 6.0 cm. The magnifying power of the telescope is ( when the final image is at infinity)
1. 24
2. 25
3. 30
4. 150
An AC source is rated at 220 V, 50Hz, the time taken for the voltage to change from the peak value to zero is
1. 50 sec
2. 0.02 sec
3. 5 sec
4. 5 x sec
An electromagnetic radiation has an energy of 13.2 keV. Then, the radiation belongs to the region of
1. visible light
2. ultraviolet
3. infrared
4. X-ray
Image formed by a plane mirror is:
1. | real |
2. | virtual |
3. | depends on the nature of the object |
4. | none of these |
An endoscope is employed by a physician to view the internal parts of a body organ. It is based on the principle of
1. refraction
2. reflection
3. total internal reflection
4. dispersion
A point object is placed beyond the focus of a convex lens cut into two halves, each of which are separated by a small distance. Then the number of images fomed will be
1. zero
2. one
3. two
4. four
A ray of light from denser medium strikes a rarer medium at an angle of incidence i (figure shown). The reflected and refracted rays make an angle 90 with each other. The angles of reflection and refraction are r and r'. The critical angle is
1.
2.
3.
4.
An air bubble in a glass slab when viewed from one side appears to be at 6 cm. From the opposite side, it appears to be at 4 cm. The thickness of glass slab is
1. 15 cm
2. 12.5 cm
3. 6.65 cm
4. 10 cm
Two plane mirrors are inclined at an angle of 60 as shown in figure. A ray of light incident on one mirror is parallel to the other. What will be the angle between the first incident ray and the last reflected ray ?
1. 120
2. 60
3. 30
4. 0
Two plane mirrors and each have length 1 m and are separated by 1 cm. A ray of light is incident on one end of mirror at an angle of 45. How many reflections will the ray have before going out from the other end ?
1. 50
2. 51
3. 100
4. 101
In a double slit experiment to find the separation between slits by displacement method, the separation of images of slits were found to be 16 mm and 9 mm respectively, the actual separation between slits will be
1. 12.5 mm
2. 12 mm
3. 3.5 mm
4. 144 mm
An opaque disc is placed on the surface of a pond with refractive index = , over a point source in liquid at a depth of 4 m. The smallest radius of the disc, so that no light is escaped from liquid is
1. 4 m
2. 3 m
3.
4. 5 m
Light enters at an angle of incidence in a transparent rod of a refractive index n. For what value of the refractive index of the material of the rod the light once entered into it will not leave it through its lateral face whatsoever be the value of angle of incidence?
(1) n >
(2) n = 1
(3) n = 1.1
(4) n = 1.3
In the circuit given in figure, are ammeters. Just after key K is pressed to complete the circuit, the reading will be
1. zero in both
2. maximum in both
3. zero in ,maximum in
4. maximum in , zero in
In the given circuit, a switch is in position a. For what value of R(unknown resistance), will circuit have a time constant of 10 ?
(1) 2.0 K
(2) 2.5 K
(3) 1.0 K
(4) None of these
A series R, L, C circuit is shown here. The source frequency f is varied, but the current is kept unchanged. Which of the curves showing changes of with frequency would be valid for the circuit under consideration?
1. | 2. | ||
3. | 4. |
A light ray incident normally on one face of an equilateral prism and emerges out grazingly at the other face. The refractive index of the prism is :
1.
2.
3.
4.
A black body has maximum radiation intensity at wavelength at 2000 K. Its corresponding wavelength at 3000 K will be
1.
2.
3.
4.
One side of a glass slab is silvered as shown. A ray of light is incident on the other side at angle of incidence of . The Refractive index of glass is given as 1.5. The deviation of the ray of light from its initial path when it comes out of the slab is:
(a) 90o
(b) 180o
(c) 120o
(d) 45o
If and represent the wavelengths of visible light, x-rays and microwaves respectively, then-
1.
2.
3.
4.
If the threshold wavelength for a photosensitive plate is \(4000\) Å, what will be the value of saturation current if radiation of wavelength \(5000\) Å is incident?
1. zero
2. \(1\) mA
3. \(3\) mA
4. data is insufficient to predict
The de Broglie wavelength of -particle is and that of proton is '. If the two particles are accelerated through same potential , the ratio will be
1.
2.
3.
4.
If potential energy in first excited state in H-atom is taken to be zero then kinetic energy in this orbit will be
1. 3.4 eV
2. 6.8 eV
3. 10.2 eV
4. 13.6 eV
The displacement current flows in the dielectric of a capacitor when the potential difference between its plates:-
1. is changing with time.
2. is changing with distance.
3. becomes zero.
4. has assumed a constant value.
For an electromagnetic wave the electric and magnetic field vectors are along +y and +z directions respectively. Then the propagation of the EM wave should be along:-
1. +y-direction
2. -y-direction
3. +x-direction
4. +z-direction
Which of the following have zero average value in a plane electromagnetic wave?
(1) electric field
(2) magnetic field
(3) magnetic & electric field both
(4) none of these